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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
A 55-year-old male presents to your clinic with a persistent, pruritic, erythematous, and scaly rash on his trunk and extremities. He reports that the rash has been present for over a year and has not responded to potent topical corticosteroids prescribed by his primary care physician. A skin biopsy was performed, and the histopathology report reveals spongiosis, parakeratosis, and a superficial perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate with some lymphocytes exhibiting cerebriform nuclei. Given the clinical presentation and initial histopathological findings, which of the following immunohistochemical stains would be MOST helpful in differentiating between chronic eczematous dermatitis and cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (mycosis fungoides) in this case?
Correct
The correct approach to this scenario involves understanding the interplay between clinical presentation, histopathological findings, and the appropriate use of immunohistochemical stains to differentiate between cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), specifically mycosis fungoides, and chronic eczematous dermatitis. The initial biopsy showing spongiosis, parakeratosis, and a superficial perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate is characteristic of eczema. However, the persistence of the rash despite topical steroid treatment raises suspicion for CTCL. The presence of atypical lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei is a key histopathological feature suggestive of mycosis fungoides, but this can also be seen in chronic inflammatory dermatoses. Therefore, immunohistochemistry is crucial. CD3 is a marker for T-cells, and its expression would be expected in both eczema and CTCL. CD4 is a T-helper cell marker, while CD8 is a cytotoxic T-cell marker. In mycosis fungoides, there is often a predominance of CD4+ T-cells over CD8+ T-cells. However, this ratio alone is not diagnostic. Loss of CD7 expression, a T-cell marker, is a common finding in mycosis fungoides and supports the diagnosis. CD30 expression can be seen in both mycosis fungoides and lymphomatoid papulosis, but its presence does not exclude mycosis fungoides, especially in the context of other concerning features. S100 is a marker for melanocytes and Langerhans cells, and while it can be expressed in some cases of CTCL, it is not a primary marker for differentiating it from eczema. Therefore, the most helpful immunohistochemical stain to differentiate between the two conditions in this scenario is CD7. Loss of CD7 expression, in conjunction with the atypical lymphocytes and clinical presentation, would strongly favor a diagnosis of mycosis fungoides over chronic eczematous dermatitis. The other markers, while potentially useful in certain contexts, are less specific for distinguishing between these two conditions in this particular case.
Incorrect
The correct approach to this scenario involves understanding the interplay between clinical presentation, histopathological findings, and the appropriate use of immunohistochemical stains to differentiate between cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), specifically mycosis fungoides, and chronic eczematous dermatitis. The initial biopsy showing spongiosis, parakeratosis, and a superficial perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate is characteristic of eczema. However, the persistence of the rash despite topical steroid treatment raises suspicion for CTCL. The presence of atypical lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei is a key histopathological feature suggestive of mycosis fungoides, but this can also be seen in chronic inflammatory dermatoses. Therefore, immunohistochemistry is crucial. CD3 is a marker for T-cells, and its expression would be expected in both eczema and CTCL. CD4 is a T-helper cell marker, while CD8 is a cytotoxic T-cell marker. In mycosis fungoides, there is often a predominance of CD4+ T-cells over CD8+ T-cells. However, this ratio alone is not diagnostic. Loss of CD7 expression, a T-cell marker, is a common finding in mycosis fungoides and supports the diagnosis. CD30 expression can be seen in both mycosis fungoides and lymphomatoid papulosis, but its presence does not exclude mycosis fungoides, especially in the context of other concerning features. S100 is a marker for melanocytes and Langerhans cells, and while it can be expressed in some cases of CTCL, it is not a primary marker for differentiating it from eczema. Therefore, the most helpful immunohistochemical stain to differentiate between the two conditions in this scenario is CD7. Loss of CD7 expression, in conjunction with the atypical lymphocytes and clinical presentation, would strongly favor a diagnosis of mycosis fungoides over chronic eczematous dermatitis. The other markers, while potentially useful in certain contexts, are less specific for distinguishing between these two conditions in this particular case.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
A 68-year-old male with a history of chronic sun exposure presents with a slowly growing, poorly defined, scaling plaque on his upper back. Initial clinical suspicion includes both basal cell carcinoma and an inflammatory dermatosis. A shave biopsy is performed, and histopathological examination reveals atypical lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei infiltrating the epidermis, exhibiting epidermotropism. Pautrier’s microabscesses are not identified. Given these findings, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in establishing a definitive diagnosis and guiding treatment?
Correct
The scenario presents a complex diagnostic challenge requiring integration of clinical presentation, histopathological findings, and immunohistochemical analysis. The patient’s history of chronic sun exposure and the presence of a poorly defined, scaling plaque raise suspicion for a keratinocytic neoplasm. While basal cell carcinoma is a possibility, the atypical lymphocytic infiltrate warrants further investigation to rule out cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), specifically mycosis fungoides (MF). The initial biopsy showing atypical lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei in the epidermis (epidermotropism) is a key feature suggestive of MF. However, epidermotropism can also be seen in other inflammatory dermatoses, necessitating further investigation. The absence of Pautrier’s microabscesses, while not ruling out MF, makes the diagnosis less certain. Immunohistochemistry plays a crucial role in differentiating MF from benign inflammatory conditions. In MF, the atypical lymphocytes are typically CD4+ and may show loss of CD7 or CD26, which are T-cell markers normally expressed. CD30 expression can be seen in some cases of MF, particularly in transformed MF. The presence of a T-cell receptor (TCR) gene rearrangement confirms the monoclonality of the T-cell population, strongly supporting the diagnosis of MF. Therefore, the most appropriate next step is to perform immunohistochemical staining for T-cell markers (CD4, CD7, CD8, CD30) and assess for TCR gene rearrangement to confirm the diagnosis and subtype the lymphoma. Additional biopsies may be needed if the initial results are inconclusive or to assess disease progression. Flow cytometry on a skin biopsy or peripheral blood sample can also be considered to further characterize the T-cell population.
Incorrect
The scenario presents a complex diagnostic challenge requiring integration of clinical presentation, histopathological findings, and immunohistochemical analysis. The patient’s history of chronic sun exposure and the presence of a poorly defined, scaling plaque raise suspicion for a keratinocytic neoplasm. While basal cell carcinoma is a possibility, the atypical lymphocytic infiltrate warrants further investigation to rule out cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), specifically mycosis fungoides (MF). The initial biopsy showing atypical lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei in the epidermis (epidermotropism) is a key feature suggestive of MF. However, epidermotropism can also be seen in other inflammatory dermatoses, necessitating further investigation. The absence of Pautrier’s microabscesses, while not ruling out MF, makes the diagnosis less certain. Immunohistochemistry plays a crucial role in differentiating MF from benign inflammatory conditions. In MF, the atypical lymphocytes are typically CD4+ and may show loss of CD7 or CD26, which are T-cell markers normally expressed. CD30 expression can be seen in some cases of MF, particularly in transformed MF. The presence of a T-cell receptor (TCR) gene rearrangement confirms the monoclonality of the T-cell population, strongly supporting the diagnosis of MF. Therefore, the most appropriate next step is to perform immunohistochemical staining for T-cell markers (CD4, CD7, CD8, CD30) and assess for TCR gene rearrangement to confirm the diagnosis and subtype the lymphoma. Additional biopsies may be needed if the initial results are inconclusive or to assess disease progression. Flow cytometry on a skin biopsy or peripheral blood sample can also be considered to further characterize the T-cell population.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
A dermatologist is planning to perform a full-face laser resurfacing procedure on a 48-year-old female patient for cosmetic purposes. Which of the following actions BEST exemplifies the principle of informed consent in this scenario?
Correct
This question examines the understanding of ethical principles in dermatology, specifically informed consent. Informed consent is a process, not just a form, where a patient is provided with comprehensive information about a proposed medical procedure or treatment. This information must include the nature of the procedure, its potential benefits, the risks and side effects, alternative treatment options (including no treatment), and the likely outcomes. The patient must have the capacity to understand this information and make a voluntary decision without coercion. A signed consent form is documentation of the process, but the core of informed consent lies in the communication and understanding between the physician and the patient. Simply presenting a form without adequate explanation, or failing to address the patient’s questions and concerns, does not constitute true informed consent. The patient must also be given the opportunity to ask questions and have them answered to their satisfaction.
Incorrect
This question examines the understanding of ethical principles in dermatology, specifically informed consent. Informed consent is a process, not just a form, where a patient is provided with comprehensive information about a proposed medical procedure or treatment. This information must include the nature of the procedure, its potential benefits, the risks and side effects, alternative treatment options (including no treatment), and the likely outcomes. The patient must have the capacity to understand this information and make a voluntary decision without coercion. A signed consent form is documentation of the process, but the core of informed consent lies in the communication and understanding between the physician and the patient. Simply presenting a form without adequate explanation, or failing to address the patient’s questions and concerns, does not constitute true informed consent. The patient must also be given the opportunity to ask questions and have them answered to their satisfaction.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
A 65-year-old male presents with a 5-year history of progressively enlarging, erythematous patches and plaques on his trunk and proximal extremities. He has been treated with topical corticosteroids with minimal improvement. A skin biopsy is performed, and immunohistochemical staining reveals the following profile: CD3 positive, CD7 negative, and CD20 negative. Based on these findings, which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis, considering the immunohistochemical profile and clinical presentation? Assume all immunohistochemical stains were performed appropriately with adequate controls. Furthermore, consider that the patient has no history of other hematologic malignancies or systemic symptoms suggestive of a systemic lymphoma at the time of biopsy. The differential diagnosis should be based solely on the cutaneous findings and the provided immunohistochemical profile. The biopsy shows a superficial infiltrate with epidermotropism and atypical lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei.
Correct
The correct approach to this question involves understanding the interplay between specific immunohistochemical markers and the expected staining patterns in different cutaneous lymphomas, particularly focusing on distinguishing between cutaneous T-cell lymphomas (CTCL) and cutaneous B-cell lymphomas (CBCL). CD3 is a pan-T-cell marker, typically expressed in the majority of T-cells, and is expected to be positive in CTCL. However, loss of CD7, another T-cell marker, is a common finding in CTCL, especially in mycosis fungoides and Sézary syndrome. CD20 is a B-cell marker and is typically negative in CTCL. In contrast, CBCL would be expected to show positivity for B-cell markers such as CD20 and negativity for T-cell markers like CD3 and CD7. However, some CBCLs can aberrantly express other markers, making the interpretation complex. The scenario presents a case where the lymphoma is CD3 positive and CD20 negative, which strongly suggests a T-cell origin. The loss of CD7 further supports the diagnosis of CTCL, specifically mycosis fungoides or Sézary syndrome. The differential diagnosis includes other T-cell lymphomas, but the CD3+/CD7-/CD20- profile is most consistent with CTCL. While some cytotoxic T-cell lymphomas might show a different marker profile, the classic presentation of mycosis fungoides or Sézary syndrome fits the given immunohistochemical findings best. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis is a cutaneous T-cell lymphoma with loss of CD7 expression.
Incorrect
The correct approach to this question involves understanding the interplay between specific immunohistochemical markers and the expected staining patterns in different cutaneous lymphomas, particularly focusing on distinguishing between cutaneous T-cell lymphomas (CTCL) and cutaneous B-cell lymphomas (CBCL). CD3 is a pan-T-cell marker, typically expressed in the majority of T-cells, and is expected to be positive in CTCL. However, loss of CD7, another T-cell marker, is a common finding in CTCL, especially in mycosis fungoides and Sézary syndrome. CD20 is a B-cell marker and is typically negative in CTCL. In contrast, CBCL would be expected to show positivity for B-cell markers such as CD20 and negativity for T-cell markers like CD3 and CD7. However, some CBCLs can aberrantly express other markers, making the interpretation complex. The scenario presents a case where the lymphoma is CD3 positive and CD20 negative, which strongly suggests a T-cell origin. The loss of CD7 further supports the diagnosis of CTCL, specifically mycosis fungoides or Sézary syndrome. The differential diagnosis includes other T-cell lymphomas, but the CD3+/CD7-/CD20- profile is most consistent with CTCL. While some cytotoxic T-cell lymphomas might show a different marker profile, the classic presentation of mycosis fungoides or Sézary syndrome fits the given immunohistochemical findings best. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis is a cutaneous T-cell lymphoma with loss of CD7 expression.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
A skin biopsy from a 65-year-old male reveals a dermal spindle cell neoplasm with a dense collagenous stroma. The pathologist suspects desmoplastic melanoma. Which of the following immunohistochemical profiles would MOST strongly support this diagnosis?
Correct
This question assesses knowledge of dermatopathology, specifically the histologic features of melanoma and the utility of immunohistochemical stains in diagnosis. S-100 protein is a commonly used marker for melanocytes, but it is not entirely specific and can be expressed in other cell types. Melan-A (MART-1) is a more specific melanocytic marker, but its sensitivity can be lower in desmoplastic melanomas. HMB-45 is an antibody that recognizes a melanosomal glycoprotein and is typically expressed in benign nevi and conventional melanomas, but its expression is often decreased or absent in desmoplastic melanomas. SOX10 is a highly sensitive and specific marker for melanocytic differentiation, including desmoplastic melanoma. In a desmoplastic melanoma, which often exhibits spindle cells and a dense collagenous stroma, S-100 may be positive, but HMB-45 is frequently negative. SOX10 is usually strongly positive, helping to confirm the melanocytic origin of the tumor. Melan-A may be variable. Therefore, the most likely immunohistochemical profile in this scenario is S-100 positive, HMB-45 negative, and SOX10 positive.
Incorrect
This question assesses knowledge of dermatopathology, specifically the histologic features of melanoma and the utility of immunohistochemical stains in diagnosis. S-100 protein is a commonly used marker for melanocytes, but it is not entirely specific and can be expressed in other cell types. Melan-A (MART-1) is a more specific melanocytic marker, but its sensitivity can be lower in desmoplastic melanomas. HMB-45 is an antibody that recognizes a melanosomal glycoprotein and is typically expressed in benign nevi and conventional melanomas, but its expression is often decreased or absent in desmoplastic melanomas. SOX10 is a highly sensitive and specific marker for melanocytic differentiation, including desmoplastic melanoma. In a desmoplastic melanoma, which often exhibits spindle cells and a dense collagenous stroma, S-100 may be positive, but HMB-45 is frequently negative. SOX10 is usually strongly positive, helping to confirm the melanocytic origin of the tumor. Melan-A may be variable. Therefore, the most likely immunohistochemical profile in this scenario is S-100 positive, HMB-45 negative, and SOX10 positive.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
A 55-year-old male with a long-standing history of psoriasis presents to your clinic with several new, persistent, and slightly raised erythematous plaques on his trunk and proximal extremities. These plaques are distinct from his typical psoriatic lesions, exhibiting subtle scaling and mild induration. He reports mild pruritus associated with these new lesions, which has been unresponsive to his usual topical corticosteroid treatment for psoriasis. Clinical examination reveals several well-defined, irregular plaques ranging from 3 to 8 cm in diameter. Given the patient’s history and the atypical presentation of these new lesions, you suspect the possibility of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL) superimposed on his existing psoriasis. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial diagnostic step to evaluate this patient?
Correct
The scenario presents a complex case involving a patient with a history of psoriasis who now presents with atypical skin lesions suspicious for cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL). The question focuses on the appropriate initial diagnostic approach, emphasizing the integration of clinical findings, histopathology, and molecular studies. A standard shave biopsy, while useful for superficial lesions, may not provide sufficient tissue depth for accurate assessment of CTCL, particularly if the infiltrate is deep or patchy. Flow cytometry on peripheral blood is useful in some CTCL variants, particularly Sézary syndrome, but may not be diagnostic in early-stage or patch/plaque CTCL, where the malignant T-cells may be primarily localized to the skin. Immunohistochemistry (IHC) alone, while valuable, can be limited by antibody specificity and may not provide definitive evidence of clonality. The most appropriate initial diagnostic step in this scenario is a deep incisional biopsy, combined with immunohistochemical staining and T-cell receptor (TCR) gene rearrangement studies. A deep biopsy ensures adequate tissue sampling to evaluate the architecture of the lesion and the depth of the infiltrate. IHC allows for the identification of T-cell markers (e.g., CD3, CD4, CD8) and other relevant markers (e.g., CD30, PD-1) to characterize the T-cell population. Crucially, TCR gene rearrangement studies (TCR clonality studies) are essential to detect the presence of a clonal T-cell population, which is a hallmark of CTCL and helps to differentiate it from benign inflammatory conditions like psoriasis. The combination of these techniques provides the most comprehensive initial assessment to establish or exclude the diagnosis of CTCL.
Incorrect
The scenario presents a complex case involving a patient with a history of psoriasis who now presents with atypical skin lesions suspicious for cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL). The question focuses on the appropriate initial diagnostic approach, emphasizing the integration of clinical findings, histopathology, and molecular studies. A standard shave biopsy, while useful for superficial lesions, may not provide sufficient tissue depth for accurate assessment of CTCL, particularly if the infiltrate is deep or patchy. Flow cytometry on peripheral blood is useful in some CTCL variants, particularly Sézary syndrome, but may not be diagnostic in early-stage or patch/plaque CTCL, where the malignant T-cells may be primarily localized to the skin. Immunohistochemistry (IHC) alone, while valuable, can be limited by antibody specificity and may not provide definitive evidence of clonality. The most appropriate initial diagnostic step in this scenario is a deep incisional biopsy, combined with immunohistochemical staining and T-cell receptor (TCR) gene rearrangement studies. A deep biopsy ensures adequate tissue sampling to evaluate the architecture of the lesion and the depth of the infiltrate. IHC allows for the identification of T-cell markers (e.g., CD3, CD4, CD8) and other relevant markers (e.g., CD30, PD-1) to characterize the T-cell population. Crucially, TCR gene rearrangement studies (TCR clonality studies) are essential to detect the presence of a clonal T-cell population, which is a hallmark of CTCL and helps to differentiate it from benign inflammatory conditions like psoriasis. The combination of these techniques provides the most comprehensive initial assessment to establish or exclude the diagnosis of CTCL.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
A 55-year-old male presents with a persistent, mildly pruritic, erythematous patch on his upper back that has been present for approximately 6 months. The lesion is slightly scaly and has not responded to topical corticosteroids. A shave biopsy is performed, and histopathological examination reveals mild epidermal hyperplasia, slight spongiosis, and a superficial perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate with some lymphocytes showing epidermotropism. Atypical lymphocytes are noted, but they are not abundant. Based on these findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup to differentiate between early-stage mycosis fungoides and a benign inflammatory dermatosis? The patient has no palpable lymphadenopathy and reports no systemic symptoms. The initial biopsy report does not include immunohistochemical staining or molecular studies. The patient’s insurance requires pre-authorization for expensive tests.
Correct
The correct approach to this question involves understanding the interplay between clinical presentation, histopathological findings, and appropriate diagnostic workup for cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), specifically mycosis fungoides (MF). The patient’s presentation suggests early-stage MF, but definitive diagnosis requires careful clinicopathological correlation. While the initial biopsy shows features suggestive of MF (epidermotropism, atypical lymphocytes), these findings can be subtle and mimicked by benign inflammatory dermatoses. Therefore, further investigation is warranted. Serial sections of the biopsy are important to assess for clonality. T-cell receptor gene rearrangement studies (TCR gene rearrangement) can detect clonal T-cell populations, providing further evidence for MF. However, a negative TCR gene rearrangement does not definitively rule out MF, especially in early stages. Flow cytometry can be useful in identifying abnormal T-cell populations within the skin. Immunohistochemistry is crucial. Markers like CD3, CD4, CD8, and CD7 help characterize the T-cell infiltrate. Loss of CD7 expression by a significant proportion of T-cells can be a clue to CTCL. Other markers such as CD30 and PD-1 are also important in certain subtypes. Staging is also important. Complete blood count (CBC) with differential and comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP) are standard. Lymph node examination, and potentially biopsy, is indicated if there is clinical suspicion of lymph node involvement. A PET/CT scan is generally reserved for more advanced stages. Therefore, the most appropriate next step is to perform serial sections of the biopsy with T-cell receptor gene rearrangement studies and immunohistochemical staining to further evaluate the possibility of MF and rule out other inflammatory conditions.
Incorrect
The correct approach to this question involves understanding the interplay between clinical presentation, histopathological findings, and appropriate diagnostic workup for cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), specifically mycosis fungoides (MF). The patient’s presentation suggests early-stage MF, but definitive diagnosis requires careful clinicopathological correlation. While the initial biopsy shows features suggestive of MF (epidermotropism, atypical lymphocytes), these findings can be subtle and mimicked by benign inflammatory dermatoses. Therefore, further investigation is warranted. Serial sections of the biopsy are important to assess for clonality. T-cell receptor gene rearrangement studies (TCR gene rearrangement) can detect clonal T-cell populations, providing further evidence for MF. However, a negative TCR gene rearrangement does not definitively rule out MF, especially in early stages. Flow cytometry can be useful in identifying abnormal T-cell populations within the skin. Immunohistochemistry is crucial. Markers like CD3, CD4, CD8, and CD7 help characterize the T-cell infiltrate. Loss of CD7 expression by a significant proportion of T-cells can be a clue to CTCL. Other markers such as CD30 and PD-1 are also important in certain subtypes. Staging is also important. Complete blood count (CBC) with differential and comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP) are standard. Lymph node examination, and potentially biopsy, is indicated if there is clinical suspicion of lymph node involvement. A PET/CT scan is generally reserved for more advanced stages. Therefore, the most appropriate next step is to perform serial sections of the biopsy with T-cell receptor gene rearrangement studies and immunohistochemical staining to further evaluate the possibility of MF and rule out other inflammatory conditions.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
A 55-year-old male presents to your clinic with an irregularly pigmented lesion on his back that has changed in size and color over the past few months. You perform a superficial shave biopsy of the lesion. Histopathological examination reveals atypical melanocytes confined to the epidermis, but the sample is very superficial, barely extending into the papillary dermis. Immunohistochemical stains for MART-1, SOX10, and PRAME are all negative. Given these findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
Correct
The correct approach involves understanding the interplay between clinical presentation, histopathological findings, and the limitations of immunohistochemical stains. A superficial shave biopsy, by its nature, provides limited tissue depth, hindering assessment of deeper dermal structures. While MART-1 and SOX10 are reliable melanocytic markers, their sensitivity isn’t absolute, particularly in desmoplastic melanomas or melanoma in situ with subtle melanocytic atypia. PRAME (PReferentially expressed Antigen in MElanoma) is a melanoma-associated antigen, and its expression supports malignancy, but it’s not entirely specific. The absence of staining with these markers, especially in a superficial sample, doesn’t definitively rule out melanoma. The clinical presentation, specifically the irregular pigmented lesion with recent changes, raises strong suspicion. Deeper biopsies, like a punch or excisional biopsy, are crucial to evaluate the full architecture of the lesion, assess for dermal invasion, mitotic rate, and Breslow’s thickness if melanoma is present. These deeper sections would also allow for more comprehensive immunohistochemical analysis on a larger tissue volume, potentially revealing focal areas of marker expression that were missed in the initial superficial shave biopsy. The initial negative stains, combined with the superficial nature of the biopsy, do not negate the need for further investigation given the concerning clinical features.
Incorrect
The correct approach involves understanding the interplay between clinical presentation, histopathological findings, and the limitations of immunohistochemical stains. A superficial shave biopsy, by its nature, provides limited tissue depth, hindering assessment of deeper dermal structures. While MART-1 and SOX10 are reliable melanocytic markers, their sensitivity isn’t absolute, particularly in desmoplastic melanomas or melanoma in situ with subtle melanocytic atypia. PRAME (PReferentially expressed Antigen in MElanoma) is a melanoma-associated antigen, and its expression supports malignancy, but it’s not entirely specific. The absence of staining with these markers, especially in a superficial sample, doesn’t definitively rule out melanoma. The clinical presentation, specifically the irregular pigmented lesion with recent changes, raises strong suspicion. Deeper biopsies, like a punch or excisional biopsy, are crucial to evaluate the full architecture of the lesion, assess for dermal invasion, mitotic rate, and Breslow’s thickness if melanoma is present. These deeper sections would also allow for more comprehensive immunohistochemical analysis on a larger tissue volume, potentially revealing focal areas of marker expression that were missed in the initial superficial shave biopsy. The initial negative stains, combined with the superficial nature of the biopsy, do not negate the need for further investigation given the concerning clinical features.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
A 32-year-old male presents to your clinic for a skin examination. He reports that his father was diagnosed with melanoma at age 45. On examination, you note more than 50 nevi, several of which are clinically atypical with irregular borders, variable pigmentation, and diameters greater than 6 mm. Based on these findings, which of the following is the MOST appropriate management strategy for this patient?
Correct
The scenario presents a patient with multiple atypical nevi and a family history of melanoma, fulfilling criteria for dysplastic nevus syndrome (also known as familial atypical multiple mole melanoma syndrome or FAMMM syndrome). Patients with FAMMM syndrome have a significantly increased lifetime risk of developing melanoma. Therefore, regular total body skin examinations (TBSEs) by a dermatologist are crucial for early detection of melanoma. The frequency of these examinations depends on the individual’s risk factors, but generally ranges from every 3 to 12 months. While self-skin examinations are important, they are not sufficient as the sole method of surveillance in high-risk individuals. Prophylactic excision of all atypical nevi is not practical or recommended. Genetic testing for *CDKN2A* mutations may be considered, as mutations in this gene are associated with increased melanoma risk, but it is not a substitute for regular clinical examinations. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is performed for staging melanoma, not for surveillance of atypical nevi.
Incorrect
The scenario presents a patient with multiple atypical nevi and a family history of melanoma, fulfilling criteria for dysplastic nevus syndrome (also known as familial atypical multiple mole melanoma syndrome or FAMMM syndrome). Patients with FAMMM syndrome have a significantly increased lifetime risk of developing melanoma. Therefore, regular total body skin examinations (TBSEs) by a dermatologist are crucial for early detection of melanoma. The frequency of these examinations depends on the individual’s risk factors, but generally ranges from every 3 to 12 months. While self-skin examinations are important, they are not sufficient as the sole method of surveillance in high-risk individuals. Prophylactic excision of all atypical nevi is not practical or recommended. Genetic testing for *CDKN2A* mutations may be considered, as mutations in this gene are associated with increased melanoma risk, but it is not a substitute for regular clinical examinations. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is performed for staging melanoma, not for surveillance of atypical nevi.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
A 45-year-old female presents with a pigmented lesion on her back that is suspicious for melanoma. Dermoscopy reveals an atypical pigment network, irregular globules, and blue-white veil. Excisional biopsy reveals a melanoma with a Breslow thickness of 1.2 mm, Clark level IV, and no ulceration. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
Correct
The scenario presents a patient with a pigmented lesion suspicious for melanoma. The dermoscopic image shows an atypical pigment network, irregular globules, and blue-white veil, all of which are concerning features for melanoma. The Breslow thickness is a critical prognostic factor in melanoma, as it is the most important determinant of survival. Sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB) is recommended for melanomas with a Breslow thickness greater than 1.0 mm, as these tumors have a higher risk of metastasis to the regional lymph nodes. SLNB is also considered for melanomas with a Breslow thickness between 0.76 mm and 1.0 mm if there are other high-risk features, such as ulceration, high mitotic rate, or lymphovascular invasion. In this case, the melanoma is 1.2 mm thick, which is above the threshold for SLNB. Therefore, SLNB is the most appropriate next step in management. Wide local excision is always performed for melanoma, but it is not the only step. Observation alone is not appropriate for a melanoma of this thickness.
Incorrect
The scenario presents a patient with a pigmented lesion suspicious for melanoma. The dermoscopic image shows an atypical pigment network, irregular globules, and blue-white veil, all of which are concerning features for melanoma. The Breslow thickness is a critical prognostic factor in melanoma, as it is the most important determinant of survival. Sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB) is recommended for melanomas with a Breslow thickness greater than 1.0 mm, as these tumors have a higher risk of metastasis to the regional lymph nodes. SLNB is also considered for melanomas with a Breslow thickness between 0.76 mm and 1.0 mm if there are other high-risk features, such as ulceration, high mitotic rate, or lymphovascular invasion. In this case, the melanoma is 1.2 mm thick, which is above the threshold for SLNB. Therefore, SLNB is the most appropriate next step in management. Wide local excision is always performed for melanoma, but it is not the only step. Observation alone is not appropriate for a melanoma of this thickness.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
A dermatologist performs laser skin resurfacing on a 42-year-old female with Fitzpatrick skin type IV for the treatment of facial rhytides. The patient signed a detailed consent form that listed common risks such as erythema, edema, and infection. However, the consent form did not specifically mention the risk of post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation (PIH). The patient subsequently develops significant and prolonged PIH that lasts for several months, causing her considerable distress. She claims she would not have undergone the procedure if she had known about the risk of PIH. Which of the following statements BEST describes the ethical and legal implications of this scenario?
Correct
This question addresses the ethical considerations and legal requirements surrounding informed consent in dermatologic procedures, particularly in the context of cosmetic treatments. Informed consent is a fundamental principle of medical ethics and a legal requirement in most jurisdictions. It ensures that patients have the autonomy to make informed decisions about their healthcare based on a clear understanding of the proposed procedure, its potential benefits and risks, alternative treatment options, and the consequences of refusing treatment. The elements of informed consent typically include: (1) a clear explanation of the procedure or treatment, including its purpose, technique, and expected outcomes; (2) a discussion of the potential benefits of the procedure; (3) a thorough review of the reasonably foreseeable risks and complications, including common and rare adverse events; (4) a discussion of alternative treatment options, including the option of no treatment; and (5) an opportunity for the patient to ask questions and receive satisfactory answers. While written consent forms are often used to document the informed consent process, they are not a substitute for a meaningful discussion between the physician and the patient. The physician has a duty to ensure that the patient understands the information provided and is making a voluntary decision. The standard of disclosure is generally based on what a reasonable patient would want to know in order to make an informed decision. In the scenario presented, the physician failed to adequately disclose the risk of prolonged post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation (PIH), a known potential complication of laser skin resurfacing, particularly in patients with darker skin types. As a result, the patient did not have sufficient information to make an informed decision about whether to proceed with the procedure. This constitutes a breach of the physician’s duty to obtain informed consent.
Incorrect
This question addresses the ethical considerations and legal requirements surrounding informed consent in dermatologic procedures, particularly in the context of cosmetic treatments. Informed consent is a fundamental principle of medical ethics and a legal requirement in most jurisdictions. It ensures that patients have the autonomy to make informed decisions about their healthcare based on a clear understanding of the proposed procedure, its potential benefits and risks, alternative treatment options, and the consequences of refusing treatment. The elements of informed consent typically include: (1) a clear explanation of the procedure or treatment, including its purpose, technique, and expected outcomes; (2) a discussion of the potential benefits of the procedure; (3) a thorough review of the reasonably foreseeable risks and complications, including common and rare adverse events; (4) a discussion of alternative treatment options, including the option of no treatment; and (5) an opportunity for the patient to ask questions and receive satisfactory answers. While written consent forms are often used to document the informed consent process, they are not a substitute for a meaningful discussion between the physician and the patient. The physician has a duty to ensure that the patient understands the information provided and is making a voluntary decision. The standard of disclosure is generally based on what a reasonable patient would want to know in order to make an informed decision. In the scenario presented, the physician failed to adequately disclose the risk of prolonged post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation (PIH), a known potential complication of laser skin resurfacing, particularly in patients with darker skin types. As a result, the patient did not have sufficient information to make an informed decision about whether to proceed with the procedure. This constitutes a breach of the physician’s duty to obtain informed consent.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
A 58-year-old male with a 20-year history of plaque psoriasis, well-controlled on topical corticosteroids, has been on adalimumab for the past 6 months due to worsening joint symptoms. He presents with new, intensely pruritic, erythematous, scaly plaques on his trunk and proximal extremities that are clinically distinct from his typical psoriatic lesions. The new lesions are slightly raised, with subtle poikiloderma. A shave biopsy of one of these new lesions shows hyperkeratosis, parakeratosis, mild acanthosis, a superficial perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate, and rare atypical lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei. While these findings could be consistent with either a paradoxical psoriasis exacerbation, a superimposed fungal infection exacerbated by immunosuppression, or early cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), which of the following histopathological techniques would be MOST helpful in initially differentiating between these possibilities?
Correct
The scenario describes a complex case involving a patient with a history of psoriasis who develops new skin lesions while on adalimumab. The primary concern is differentiating between a paradoxical psoriasis exacerbation, a superimposed fungal infection exacerbated by immunosuppression, or the development of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), specifically mycosis fungoides, which can mimic psoriasis clinically and histologically, and can be triggered by TNF-alpha inhibitors. A Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain would be most helpful initially. This stain highlights fungal organisms, which would quickly rule out or confirm a fungal infection. While a repeat biopsy with deeper sections and flow cytometry is crucial for ruling out CTCL, it is a more involved and time-consuming process. Keratin markers (e.g., CK5/6, CK17) can help differentiate between different types of squamous cell proliferations but are not specific enough to differentiate between psoriasis, fungal infections, and early CTCL. Immunostaining for melanocyte markers like Melan-A or HMB-45 is irrelevant in this scenario, as the differential diagnosis does not involve melanocytic lesions. A PAS stain is the most direct and efficient first step in narrowing the differential diagnosis and guiding further investigations. The presence of hyphae and spores would strongly suggest a fungal infection, prompting appropriate antifungal treatment. The absence of fungal elements would necessitate further investigation into paradoxical psoriasis or CTCL.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a complex case involving a patient with a history of psoriasis who develops new skin lesions while on adalimumab. The primary concern is differentiating between a paradoxical psoriasis exacerbation, a superimposed fungal infection exacerbated by immunosuppression, or the development of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), specifically mycosis fungoides, which can mimic psoriasis clinically and histologically, and can be triggered by TNF-alpha inhibitors. A Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain would be most helpful initially. This stain highlights fungal organisms, which would quickly rule out or confirm a fungal infection. While a repeat biopsy with deeper sections and flow cytometry is crucial for ruling out CTCL, it is a more involved and time-consuming process. Keratin markers (e.g., CK5/6, CK17) can help differentiate between different types of squamous cell proliferations but are not specific enough to differentiate between psoriasis, fungal infections, and early CTCL. Immunostaining for melanocyte markers like Melan-A or HMB-45 is irrelevant in this scenario, as the differential diagnosis does not involve melanocytic lesions. A PAS stain is the most direct and efficient first step in narrowing the differential diagnosis and guiding further investigations. The presence of hyphae and spores would strongly suggest a fungal infection, prompting appropriate antifungal treatment. The absence of fungal elements would necessitate further investigation into paradoxical psoriasis or CTCL.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
A 62-year-old male presents with a persistent, pruritic, eczematous rash on his trunk for the past two years. Initial biopsies were interpreted as superficial perivascular dermatitis. The rash has been refractory to topical corticosteroids. A repeat biopsy now shows a band-like infiltrate of lymphocytes in the upper dermis with epidermotropism. Given the clinical presentation and histopathological findings, which of the following immunohistochemical findings would be MOST helpful in confirming a diagnosis of mycosis fungoides? This patient has no history of other significant medical conditions or medications that could confound the diagnosis. The dermatopathologist is seeking to differentiate this presentation from benign inflammatory dermatoses. Consider the typical immunophenotype associated with mycosis fungoides when selecting the most appropriate marker combination.
Correct
The correct approach involves understanding the interplay between clinical presentation, histopathological findings, and the judicious use of immunohistochemical markers to arrive at a definitive diagnosis. In this scenario, the patient’s presentation is suggestive of a cutaneous lymphoma, specifically mycosis fungoides (MF). The initial biopsy showing superficial perivascular dermatitis is a common early finding in MF, often termed “eczematous” or “psoriasiform” dermatitis. The key to differentiating early MF from benign inflammatory dermatoses lies in identifying subtle but crucial histopathological features, such as epidermotropism of lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei, and the presence of atypical lymphocytes forming Pautrier’s microabscesses within the epidermis. However, these features may be subtle or absent in early lesions, necessitating further investigation. A repeat biopsy, demonstrating a band-like infiltrate of lymphocytes in the upper dermis with epidermotropism, increases the suspicion for MF. At this stage, immunohistochemistry becomes invaluable. CD3 is a pan-T cell marker and will be positive in both benign and malignant T-cell infiltrates. However, MF is often characterized by the loss of certain T-cell markers, particularly CD7. CD7 is normally expressed on most mature T cells, and its loss, in the context of a CD3-positive T-cell infiltrate with epidermotropism, is a strong indicator of MF. CD20 is a B-cell marker and should be negative in MF. S100 is a marker for melanocytes and Langerhans cells; while it can be positive in some lymphomas, it is not the primary marker used for diagnosing MF. Ki-67 is a proliferation marker, and while it can be elevated in MF, it is not as specific as CD7 loss for diagnosis. Therefore, the most helpful immunohistochemical finding to confirm the diagnosis of mycosis fungoides in this scenario is CD3+, CD7-. This pattern, combined with the clinical and histopathological findings, strongly supports the diagnosis of MF.
Incorrect
The correct approach involves understanding the interplay between clinical presentation, histopathological findings, and the judicious use of immunohistochemical markers to arrive at a definitive diagnosis. In this scenario, the patient’s presentation is suggestive of a cutaneous lymphoma, specifically mycosis fungoides (MF). The initial biopsy showing superficial perivascular dermatitis is a common early finding in MF, often termed “eczematous” or “psoriasiform” dermatitis. The key to differentiating early MF from benign inflammatory dermatoses lies in identifying subtle but crucial histopathological features, such as epidermotropism of lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei, and the presence of atypical lymphocytes forming Pautrier’s microabscesses within the epidermis. However, these features may be subtle or absent in early lesions, necessitating further investigation. A repeat biopsy, demonstrating a band-like infiltrate of lymphocytes in the upper dermis with epidermotropism, increases the suspicion for MF. At this stage, immunohistochemistry becomes invaluable. CD3 is a pan-T cell marker and will be positive in both benign and malignant T-cell infiltrates. However, MF is often characterized by the loss of certain T-cell markers, particularly CD7. CD7 is normally expressed on most mature T cells, and its loss, in the context of a CD3-positive T-cell infiltrate with epidermotropism, is a strong indicator of MF. CD20 is a B-cell marker and should be negative in MF. S100 is a marker for melanocytes and Langerhans cells; while it can be positive in some lymphomas, it is not the primary marker used for diagnosing MF. Ki-67 is a proliferation marker, and while it can be elevated in MF, it is not as specific as CD7 loss for diagnosis. Therefore, the most helpful immunohistochemical finding to confirm the diagnosis of mycosis fungoides in this scenario is CD3+, CD7-. This pattern, combined with the clinical and histopathological findings, strongly supports the diagnosis of MF.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
A 24-year-old female presents to your clinic requesting treatment for mild comedonal acne on her forehead. She has tried over-the-counter topical treatments with minimal improvement. She is otherwise healthy and has no significant medical history. She expresses strong dissatisfaction with her appearance and insists on a more aggressive treatment approach. You are considering prescribing systemic methotrexate, acknowledging that this would be an off-label use for acne. Which of the following considerations is MOST ethically relevant in determining whether to proceed with this treatment plan?
Correct
This question addresses the ethical considerations surrounding off-label use of medications in dermatology, specifically focusing on the prescribing of systemic medications for cosmetic purposes. While physicians have the latitude to prescribe medications off-label based on their clinical judgment, doing so requires a thorough understanding of the risks and benefits, a comprehensive discussion with the patient, and meticulous documentation. Prescribing a potent immunosuppressant like methotrexate solely for mild acne in an otherwise healthy individual raises significant ethical concerns. The potential risks of methotrexate, including liver toxicity, bone marrow suppression, and increased susceptibility to infections, outweigh the benefits in this scenario. The ethical principle of beneficence (doing good) is challenged when the potential harm outweighs the potential benefit. The ethical principle of non-maleficence (doing no harm) is also relevant.
Incorrect
This question addresses the ethical considerations surrounding off-label use of medications in dermatology, specifically focusing on the prescribing of systemic medications for cosmetic purposes. While physicians have the latitude to prescribe medications off-label based on their clinical judgment, doing so requires a thorough understanding of the risks and benefits, a comprehensive discussion with the patient, and meticulous documentation. Prescribing a potent immunosuppressant like methotrexate solely for mild acne in an otherwise healthy individual raises significant ethical concerns. The potential risks of methotrexate, including liver toxicity, bone marrow suppression, and increased susceptibility to infections, outweigh the benefits in this scenario. The ethical principle of beneficence (doing good) is challenged when the potential harm outweighs the potential benefit. The ethical principle of non-maleficence (doing no harm) is also relevant.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
A 62-year-old male presents with a 5-year history of slowly progressive, pruritic erythematous patches and plaques on his trunk and extremities. Initial biopsies showed epidermotropism with atypical lymphocytes exhibiting cerebriform nuclei, consistent with early-stage cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL). A subsequent biopsy from a new lesion reveals a similar infiltrate, but immunohistochemical staining shows CD30 positivity in approximately 30% of the atypical lymphocytes. Flow cytometry of peripheral blood is negative for Sézary cells. Physical examination reveals no palpable lymphadenopathy or organomegaly. T-cell receptor (TCR) gene rearrangement studies performed on the skin biopsy demonstrate a dominant T-cell clone. According to the ISCL/EORTC staging system for CTCL, and considering the histopathological, immunohistochemical, and molecular findings, what is the MOST appropriate stage for this patient?
Correct
The scenario describes a complex case involving potential cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL) and highlights the importance of integrating clinical findings, histopathology, immunohistochemistry, and molecular pathology for accurate diagnosis and staging, which is a core competency assessed by the American Board of Dermatology. The correct approach involves first confirming the diagnosis of CTCL through histopathological examination and immunohistochemical staining. CD30 positivity in a significant proportion of cells (greater than 10%) warrants further investigation to differentiate between primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma (pcALCL) and CTCL with transformed large cell morphology. Molecular analysis, specifically T-cell receptor (TCR) gene rearrangement studies, is crucial to determine clonality. A dominant T-cell clone supports the diagnosis of CTCL. Staging should then be performed according to the ISCL/EORTC guidelines, considering the extent of skin involvement (patches, plaques, tumors), lymph node involvement, blood involvement (Sézary cells), and visceral involvement. The initial biopsy showing epidermotropism and atypical lymphocytes suggests CTCL, but the CD30 positivity necessitates further investigation. The presence of a dominant T-cell clone confirms the CTCL diagnosis. Staging is essential to determine the extent of disease and guide treatment decisions. The lack of extracutaneous involvement (lymph nodes, blood, or viscera) indicates limited stage disease.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a complex case involving potential cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL) and highlights the importance of integrating clinical findings, histopathology, immunohistochemistry, and molecular pathology for accurate diagnosis and staging, which is a core competency assessed by the American Board of Dermatology. The correct approach involves first confirming the diagnosis of CTCL through histopathological examination and immunohistochemical staining. CD30 positivity in a significant proportion of cells (greater than 10%) warrants further investigation to differentiate between primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma (pcALCL) and CTCL with transformed large cell morphology. Molecular analysis, specifically T-cell receptor (TCR) gene rearrangement studies, is crucial to determine clonality. A dominant T-cell clone supports the diagnosis of CTCL. Staging should then be performed according to the ISCL/EORTC guidelines, considering the extent of skin involvement (patches, plaques, tumors), lymph node involvement, blood involvement (Sézary cells), and visceral involvement. The initial biopsy showing epidermotropism and atypical lymphocytes suggests CTCL, but the CD30 positivity necessitates further investigation. The presence of a dominant T-cell clone confirms the CTCL diagnosis. Staging is essential to determine the extent of disease and guide treatment decisions. The lack of extracutaneous involvement (lymph nodes, blood, or viscera) indicates limited stage disease.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
A 52-year-old male with a 20-year history of psoriasis, well-controlled with topical corticosteroids, presents to your clinic with new-onset, pruritic, erythematous plaques on his trunk and proximal extremities. These lesions developed approximately 3 months after initiating adalimumab for psoriatic arthritis. A skin biopsy is performed to evaluate for paradoxical psoriasis versus other potential etiologies, including cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. Histopathological examination reveals epidermal hyperplasia, parakeratosis, and a superficial perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate. Which of the following histopathological findings would most strongly favor a diagnosis of mycosis fungoides over paradoxical psoriasis in this clinical context? Consider the nuances of differentiating these conditions, especially in the setting of TNF-alpha inhibitor use, and the importance of specific histopathological features in guiding the diagnosis and subsequent management. Understanding the subtle differences in histological presentation is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment strategies in patients on biologic therapies.
Correct
The scenario describes a complex case involving a patient with a history of psoriasis who develops skin lesions after starting adalimumab, a TNF-alpha inhibitor. The key is to differentiate between paradoxical psoriasis (psoriasis induced by TNF-alpha inhibitors) and cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), specifically mycosis fungoides, which can sometimes be triggered or unmasked by TNF-alpha inhibitors. While both conditions can present with similar clinical features, certain histopathological findings are more suggestive of one over the other. In paradoxical psoriasis, the histopathology typically shows features characteristic of psoriasis, such as epidermal hyperplasia, parakeratosis, neutrophilic microabscesses (Munro’s microabscesses), and dilated blood vessels in the dermal papillae. However, the inflammatory infiltrate is usually less atypical and lacks the epidermotropism (lymphocytes migrating into the epidermis) that is commonly seen in mycosis fungoides. Mycosis fungoides, on the other hand, often exhibits epidermotropism of atypical lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei (Sezary cells), Pautrier’s microabscesses (collections of atypical lymphocytes within the epidermis), and a band-like lymphocytic infiltrate in the upper dermis. Immunohistochemical stains can be helpful in distinguishing between the two conditions. In mycosis fungoides, the atypical lymphocytes often express CD3, CD4, and may show loss of CD7 or CD26. The presence of CD30 positivity in a significant proportion of the atypical lymphocytes would be more suggestive of a CD30+ lymphoproliferative disorder, such as primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma (cALCL), which, while a cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, is distinct from mycosis fungoides. The absence of significant epidermotropism and atypical lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei would make mycosis fungoides less likely. Therefore, the histopathological finding that would most strongly suggest mycosis fungoides over paradoxical psoriasis in this scenario is epidermotropism of atypical lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei and Pautrier’s microabscesses.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a complex case involving a patient with a history of psoriasis who develops skin lesions after starting adalimumab, a TNF-alpha inhibitor. The key is to differentiate between paradoxical psoriasis (psoriasis induced by TNF-alpha inhibitors) and cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), specifically mycosis fungoides, which can sometimes be triggered or unmasked by TNF-alpha inhibitors. While both conditions can present with similar clinical features, certain histopathological findings are more suggestive of one over the other. In paradoxical psoriasis, the histopathology typically shows features characteristic of psoriasis, such as epidermal hyperplasia, parakeratosis, neutrophilic microabscesses (Munro’s microabscesses), and dilated blood vessels in the dermal papillae. However, the inflammatory infiltrate is usually less atypical and lacks the epidermotropism (lymphocytes migrating into the epidermis) that is commonly seen in mycosis fungoides. Mycosis fungoides, on the other hand, often exhibits epidermotropism of atypical lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei (Sezary cells), Pautrier’s microabscesses (collections of atypical lymphocytes within the epidermis), and a band-like lymphocytic infiltrate in the upper dermis. Immunohistochemical stains can be helpful in distinguishing between the two conditions. In mycosis fungoides, the atypical lymphocytes often express CD3, CD4, and may show loss of CD7 or CD26. The presence of CD30 positivity in a significant proportion of the atypical lymphocytes would be more suggestive of a CD30+ lymphoproliferative disorder, such as primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma (cALCL), which, while a cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, is distinct from mycosis fungoides. The absence of significant epidermotropism and atypical lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei would make mycosis fungoides less likely. Therefore, the histopathological finding that would most strongly suggest mycosis fungoides over paradoxical psoriasis in this scenario is epidermotropism of atypical lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei and Pautrier’s microabscesses.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
A 45-year-old male presents to your clinic with well-demarcated, erythematous plaques covered with silvery scales on his elbows and knees. Based on clinical presentation, you suspect psoriasis. A skin biopsy is performed to confirm the diagnosis. Which of the following histopathological findings would be LEAST consistent with a diagnosis of psoriasis vulgaris and should prompt consideration of alternative diagnoses?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient presenting with clinical features suggestive of psoriasis (well-demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery scales). To confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions with similar presentations (like eczema or fungal infections), a skin biopsy is performed. The histopathological findings are crucial in differentiating psoriasis from other skin disorders. Key histological features of psoriasis include: epidermal hyperplasia (acanthosis), parakeratosis (retention of nuclei in the stratum corneum), neutrophils in the stratum corneum (Munro’s microabscesses), thinning of the granular layer, and dilated, tortuous capillaries in the dermal papillae. The absence of a significant spongiotic component (intercellular edema in the epidermis) is important to distinguish psoriasis from eczematous dermatitis. While mild spongiosis can be seen in psoriasis, it is not a prominent feature. Furthermore, the presence of eosinophils would be more suggestive of an eczematous process or a drug reaction, rather than psoriasis. The presence of fungal hyphae would indicate a fungal infection, which needs to be ruled out. The question is specifically asking about features that would *not* be consistent with psoriasis. Therefore, the presence of significant spongiosis with numerous eosinophils would be the most inconsistent finding.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient presenting with clinical features suggestive of psoriasis (well-demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery scales). To confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions with similar presentations (like eczema or fungal infections), a skin biopsy is performed. The histopathological findings are crucial in differentiating psoriasis from other skin disorders. Key histological features of psoriasis include: epidermal hyperplasia (acanthosis), parakeratosis (retention of nuclei in the stratum corneum), neutrophils in the stratum corneum (Munro’s microabscesses), thinning of the granular layer, and dilated, tortuous capillaries in the dermal papillae. The absence of a significant spongiotic component (intercellular edema in the epidermis) is important to distinguish psoriasis from eczematous dermatitis. While mild spongiosis can be seen in psoriasis, it is not a prominent feature. Furthermore, the presence of eosinophils would be more suggestive of an eczematous process or a drug reaction, rather than psoriasis. The presence of fungal hyphae would indicate a fungal infection, which needs to be ruled out. The question is specifically asking about features that would *not* be consistent with psoriasis. Therefore, the presence of significant spongiosis with numerous eosinophils would be the most inconsistent finding.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
A 55-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with a widespread blistering eruption that developed rapidly over the past 24 hours. She reports recently starting a new medication for hypertension. Physical examination reveals diffuse erythematous macules and patches with extensive areas of epidermal detachment involving approximately 40% of her body surface area. Mucosal involvement is also present. A skin biopsy shows full-thickness epidermal necrosis with subepidermal blister formation. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
Correct
This question requires an understanding of the pathogenesis, clinical features, and histopathological findings of erythema multiforme (EM), Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), as well as the key distinctions between these conditions. Erythema multiforme is typically triggered by herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection and presents with characteristic target lesions, often involving the extremities. Histopathology shows keratinocyte necrosis and a superficial perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate. Epidermal detachment is minimal or absent. Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are severe cutaneous adverse reactions, most commonly triggered by medications. SJS involves less than 10% body surface area (BSA) detachment, TEN involves more than 30% BSA detachment, and SJS/TEN overlap involves 10-30% BSA detachment. Histopathology shows full-thickness epidermal necrosis with subepidermal blister formation. The key differentiating factor in the scenario is the extent of epidermal detachment. Given the patient’s widespread blistering involving approximately 40% BSA, the most likely diagnosis is toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN).
Incorrect
This question requires an understanding of the pathogenesis, clinical features, and histopathological findings of erythema multiforme (EM), Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), as well as the key distinctions between these conditions. Erythema multiforme is typically triggered by herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection and presents with characteristic target lesions, often involving the extremities. Histopathology shows keratinocyte necrosis and a superficial perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate. Epidermal detachment is minimal or absent. Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are severe cutaneous adverse reactions, most commonly triggered by medications. SJS involves less than 10% body surface area (BSA) detachment, TEN involves more than 30% BSA detachment, and SJS/TEN overlap involves 10-30% BSA detachment. Histopathology shows full-thickness epidermal necrosis with subepidermal blister formation. The key differentiating factor in the scenario is the extent of epidermal detachment. Given the patient’s widespread blistering involving approximately 40% BSA, the most likely diagnosis is toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN).
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
You are a board-certified dermatologist licensed in the state of California. You wish to expand your practice by offering teledermatology services to patients located in other states. Which of the following is the MOST critical legal consideration you must address before providing teledermatology consultations to patients residing outside of California? You plan to use a secure, HIPAA-compliant platform for all teledermatology encounters.
Correct
This question probes the understanding of legal and ethical considerations specific to teledermatology, focusing on interstate practice and licensure requirements. The practice of medicine, including dermatology, is generally regulated at the state level. This means that a physician must be licensed in the state where the patient is located to provide medical care. Teledermatology, which involves providing dermatologic care remotely, raises complex issues regarding licensure, as the physician may be located in one state while the patient is in another. The general rule is that a physician must be licensed in the state where the *patient* is located to provide teledermatology services to that patient. There are some exceptions, such as interstate medical licensure compacts, which allow physicians to practice across state lines under certain conditions. However, these compacts are not universally adopted, and their specific provisions vary. Providing teledermatology services to a patient located in a state where the physician is not licensed generally constitutes the unauthorized practice of medicine, which can have legal and ethical consequences. Therefore, the MOST critical legal consideration when practicing teledermatology across state lines is ensuring that the physician is properly licensed in the state where the patient is located.
Incorrect
This question probes the understanding of legal and ethical considerations specific to teledermatology, focusing on interstate practice and licensure requirements. The practice of medicine, including dermatology, is generally regulated at the state level. This means that a physician must be licensed in the state where the patient is located to provide medical care. Teledermatology, which involves providing dermatologic care remotely, raises complex issues regarding licensure, as the physician may be located in one state while the patient is in another. The general rule is that a physician must be licensed in the state where the *patient* is located to provide teledermatology services to that patient. There are some exceptions, such as interstate medical licensure compacts, which allow physicians to practice across state lines under certain conditions. However, these compacts are not universally adopted, and their specific provisions vary. Providing teledermatology services to a patient located in a state where the physician is not licensed generally constitutes the unauthorized practice of medicine, which can have legal and ethical consequences. Therefore, the MOST critical legal consideration when practicing teledermatology across state lines is ensuring that the physician is properly licensed in the state where the patient is located.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
A 68-year-old male undergoes Mohs micrographic surgery for a basal cell carcinoma on his cheek. After the second stage, the lateral margins are clear, but the deep margin shows residual tumor. The Mohs surgeon is experienced and comfortable with reconstruction. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient? The surgeon has already explained the risks and benefits of all options to the patient. The patient understands and agrees to the chosen plan. The Mohs lab is properly CLIA certified and the Mohs surgeon is a board certified dermatologist who has completed an ACGME accredited Mohs surgery fellowship. The tumor is not in a high risk location such as the “H zone” of the face.
Correct
The correct approach involves understanding the principles of Mohs micrographic surgery and the surgeon’s responsibilities regarding margin control and reconstruction. Mohs surgery aims for complete margin control by systematically removing thin layers of tissue and examining them microscopically until the entire tumor is excised. The surgeon must ensure that all margins are clear of tumor cells before proceeding with reconstruction. In cases where a deep margin is positive, the surgeon must excise additional tissue from that specific area, even if the lateral margins are clear. This ensures complete tumor removal and minimizes the risk of recurrence. Reconstruction should only be performed after complete margin clearance. The surgeon’s primary responsibility is to ensure complete tumor removal, which takes precedence over immediate reconstruction. The standard of care dictates meticulous margin assessment and further excision as needed to achieve clear margins. Simply referring the patient to radiation oncology without further surgical excision when a deep margin is positive would be a deviation from the standard of care in Mohs surgery. Similarly, proceeding with reconstruction despite a positive deep margin would compromise the goal of complete tumor removal. While a second Mohs surgeon could be consulted, the initial surgeon retains the responsibility for ensuring complete margin control before reconstruction.
Incorrect
The correct approach involves understanding the principles of Mohs micrographic surgery and the surgeon’s responsibilities regarding margin control and reconstruction. Mohs surgery aims for complete margin control by systematically removing thin layers of tissue and examining them microscopically until the entire tumor is excised. The surgeon must ensure that all margins are clear of tumor cells before proceeding with reconstruction. In cases where a deep margin is positive, the surgeon must excise additional tissue from that specific area, even if the lateral margins are clear. This ensures complete tumor removal and minimizes the risk of recurrence. Reconstruction should only be performed after complete margin clearance. The surgeon’s primary responsibility is to ensure complete tumor removal, which takes precedence over immediate reconstruction. The standard of care dictates meticulous margin assessment and further excision as needed to achieve clear margins. Simply referring the patient to radiation oncology without further surgical excision when a deep margin is positive would be a deviation from the standard of care in Mohs surgery. Similarly, proceeding with reconstruction despite a positive deep margin would compromise the goal of complete tumor removal. While a second Mohs surgeon could be consulted, the initial surgeon retains the responsibility for ensuring complete margin control before reconstruction.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
A 68-year-old male presents with a long-standing, slowly progressing patch on his lower back. The lesion is slightly erythematous with subtle scaling. A biopsy is performed, and histopathology reveals an epidermotropic lymphoid infiltrate with cerebriform nuclei. Immunohistochemical staining shows the atypical lymphocytes are positive for CD3 and CD30, with loss of CD7. CD4 and CD8 expression are variable. The pathologist is concerned about a possible cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, but the CD30 positivity is somewhat atypical for classic mycosis fungoides. Flow cytometry on a peripheral blood sample does not reveal a clonal T-cell population. Given these findings, which of the following additional immunohistochemical stains would be MOST helpful in further characterizing this lymphoma and guiding the diagnosis towards an aggressive epidermotropic cytotoxic T-cell lymphoma?
Correct
The scenario describes a challenging diagnostic situation involving a cutaneous lymphoma with ambiguous marker expression. The key to correctly answering this question lies in understanding the relative specificity and sensitivity of various immunohistochemical markers used in the diagnosis of cutaneous lymphomas, particularly T-cell lymphomas. CD3 is a pan-T-cell marker but can be downregulated or lost in certain T-cell lymphomas, especially mycosis fungoides. CD4 and CD8 are T-cell co-receptor markers that help define T-cell subsets, but their expression can be variable and aberrant in lymphomas. CD30 is a marker associated with activated T-cells and is highly expressed in anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALCL), but can also be seen in other lymphomas, including some cases of mycosis fungoides. Given the patient’s presentation, the initial markers (CD3, CD4, CD8) are not definitively diagnostic. The CD30 positivity raises suspicion for ALCL, but the clinical presentation and morphology are not entirely consistent. Therefore, additional markers are needed to refine the diagnosis. TCR gene rearrangement studies are crucial in confirming the clonality of the T-cell population. A monoclonal TCR rearrangement supports the diagnosis of a T-cell lymphoma. In this case, if TCR gene rearrangement studies are positive, and if the additional marker stains are consistent with cytotoxic T-cell lymphoma, then the diagnosis would be aggressive epidermotropic cytotoxic T-cell lymphoma. Other markers that can be helpful in this scenario include: * **PD-1:** Often expressed in T follicular helper (TFH) cell lymphomas and can be helpful in differentiating these from other lymphomas. * **TIA-1 and Granzyme B:** Cytotoxic granule-associated proteins, which are useful markers for cytotoxic T-cell lymphomas. * **CD56:** A marker of natural killer (NK) cells, but can be aberrantly expressed in some T-cell lymphomas. * **EBER ISH:** Used to detect Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), which is associated with certain lymphomas. In this case, TIA-1 and Granzyme B are the most appropriate next step because the question stem indicates that the lymphoma is epidermotropic and cytotoxic.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a challenging diagnostic situation involving a cutaneous lymphoma with ambiguous marker expression. The key to correctly answering this question lies in understanding the relative specificity and sensitivity of various immunohistochemical markers used in the diagnosis of cutaneous lymphomas, particularly T-cell lymphomas. CD3 is a pan-T-cell marker but can be downregulated or lost in certain T-cell lymphomas, especially mycosis fungoides. CD4 and CD8 are T-cell co-receptor markers that help define T-cell subsets, but their expression can be variable and aberrant in lymphomas. CD30 is a marker associated with activated T-cells and is highly expressed in anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALCL), but can also be seen in other lymphomas, including some cases of mycosis fungoides. Given the patient’s presentation, the initial markers (CD3, CD4, CD8) are not definitively diagnostic. The CD30 positivity raises suspicion for ALCL, but the clinical presentation and morphology are not entirely consistent. Therefore, additional markers are needed to refine the diagnosis. TCR gene rearrangement studies are crucial in confirming the clonality of the T-cell population. A monoclonal TCR rearrangement supports the diagnosis of a T-cell lymphoma. In this case, if TCR gene rearrangement studies are positive, and if the additional marker stains are consistent with cytotoxic T-cell lymphoma, then the diagnosis would be aggressive epidermotropic cytotoxic T-cell lymphoma. Other markers that can be helpful in this scenario include: * **PD-1:** Often expressed in T follicular helper (TFH) cell lymphomas and can be helpful in differentiating these from other lymphomas. * **TIA-1 and Granzyme B:** Cytotoxic granule-associated proteins, which are useful markers for cytotoxic T-cell lymphomas. * **CD56:** A marker of natural killer (NK) cells, but can be aberrantly expressed in some T-cell lymphomas. * **EBER ISH:** Used to detect Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), which is associated with certain lymphomas. In this case, TIA-1 and Granzyme B are the most appropriate next step because the question stem indicates that the lymphoma is epidermotropic and cytotoxic.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
A 62-year-old male with a history of stage IIIB melanoma, resected five years prior with clear margins, presents for a routine skin examination. He has no clinically evident lymphadenopathy or other systemic symptoms. During the examination, a new, slightly raised, 6mm pigmented lesion with irregular borders is noted on his left upper back, approximately 10 cm from the original melanoma site. The lesion is biopsied via a punch biopsy. Histopathological examination reveals atypical melanocytes arranged in nests at the dermoepidermal junction and extending into the superficial dermis. The melanocytes exhibit moderate pleomorphism and hyperchromatic nuclei. Immunohistochemical staining is positive for Melan-A and S-100. However, the morphology is somewhat atypical for a typical melanoma metastasis or a new primary melanoma in situ. Given the patient’s history and the ambiguous histopathological findings, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management to determine the nature of this lesion?
Correct
The scenario describes a complex case involving a patient with a history of melanoma who now presents with a new lesion. The question requires the candidate to consider the implications of prior malignancy, the atypical presentation of the new lesion, and the limitations of standard diagnostic techniques. The best approach involves integrating clinical suspicion with advanced molecular diagnostics. In this scenario, while standard immunohistochemistry may provide some information, it may not be definitive enough to rule out metastatic melanoma or an unusual presentation of a new primary melanoma. The patient’s history of melanoma significantly raises the index of suspicion for metastasis. However, the atypical morphology necessitates further investigation to differentiate it from other possibilities, such as a collision tumor or a benign lesion. Gene expression profiling (GEP) assays, such as those that assess the expression of multiple genes involved in melanoma progression and metastasis, can provide a more objective assessment of the lesion’s malignant potential. These assays can help distinguish between benign nevi, primary melanomas, and metastatic lesions. In the context of a patient with a history of melanoma, a high-risk GEP result would strongly suggest that the lesion is either a new primary melanoma with aggressive features or a metastasis from the previous melanoma. The other options, while potentially useful in different contexts, are not the most appropriate next step in this specific scenario. Serial clinical examinations may delay definitive diagnosis and treatment. A shave biopsy may not provide sufficient tissue for comprehensive histological and molecular analysis. Routine H&E staining alone might not be sufficient to differentiate between a benign lesion and a melanoma, especially given the atypical morphology. Therefore, Gene expression profiling (GEP) assays would be the most effective next step.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a complex case involving a patient with a history of melanoma who now presents with a new lesion. The question requires the candidate to consider the implications of prior malignancy, the atypical presentation of the new lesion, and the limitations of standard diagnostic techniques. The best approach involves integrating clinical suspicion with advanced molecular diagnostics. In this scenario, while standard immunohistochemistry may provide some information, it may not be definitive enough to rule out metastatic melanoma or an unusual presentation of a new primary melanoma. The patient’s history of melanoma significantly raises the index of suspicion for metastasis. However, the atypical morphology necessitates further investigation to differentiate it from other possibilities, such as a collision tumor or a benign lesion. Gene expression profiling (GEP) assays, such as those that assess the expression of multiple genes involved in melanoma progression and metastasis, can provide a more objective assessment of the lesion’s malignant potential. These assays can help distinguish between benign nevi, primary melanomas, and metastatic lesions. In the context of a patient with a history of melanoma, a high-risk GEP result would strongly suggest that the lesion is either a new primary melanoma with aggressive features or a metastasis from the previous melanoma. The other options, while potentially useful in different contexts, are not the most appropriate next step in this specific scenario. Serial clinical examinations may delay definitive diagnosis and treatment. A shave biopsy may not provide sufficient tissue for comprehensive histological and molecular analysis. Routine H&E staining alone might not be sufficient to differentiate between a benign lesion and a melanoma, especially given the atypical morphology. Therefore, Gene expression profiling (GEP) assays would be the most effective next step.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
A 58-year-old male with a 20-year history of psoriasis, well-controlled on etanercept (a TNF-alpha inhibitor), presents with a new, localized, slightly raised, erythematous plaque on his lower back. A biopsy is performed. Histopathology reveals a psoriasiform epidermal hyperplasia with focal parakeratosis, mild spongiosis, and a superficial dermal infiltrate composed of lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei. There is some epidermotropism noted. The pathologist indicates that the findings are concerning for either a psoriatic reaction or early-stage mycosis fungoides (MF). Which of the following immunohistochemical findings would be MOST helpful in differentiating between these two possibilities in this clinical context?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a history of psoriasis undergoing treatment with a TNF-alpha inhibitor who develops a localized skin lesion. The histopathology reveals features suggestive of both psoriasis and cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), specifically mycosis fungoides (MF). The key challenge is differentiating between a psoriatic reaction pattern and early-stage MF, which can be difficult due to overlapping histological features. Immunohistochemistry plays a crucial role in this differentiation. Loss of CD7 is a well-recognized marker in CTCL, particularly MF. CD7 is a T-cell marker normally expressed on most T cells. Its absence or reduced expression in a significant proportion of T cells within an atypical lymphoid infiltrate raises suspicion for CTCL. While other markers like CD4 and CD8 are important for T-cell subset identification, loss of CD7 is more specific for CTCL in the context of a psoriasiform dermatitis. CD30 positivity is associated with lymphoproliferative disorders, including some types of CTCL (e.g., anaplastic large cell lymphoma), but is not typically seen in early-stage MF. Ki-67 is a proliferation marker and can be elevated in both psoriasis and CTCL, making it less helpful in distinguishing between the two. HLA-DR is an activation marker that can be upregulated in both conditions. Therefore, the most informative immunohistochemical finding to differentiate MF from a psoriatic reaction in this scenario is loss of CD7. The fact that the patient is on a TNF-alpha inhibitor further complicates the picture, as these drugs can sometimes induce psoriasiform eruptions with atypical features. Therefore, loss of CD7 in the context of clinical history and other histological findings would be most indicative of MF.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a history of psoriasis undergoing treatment with a TNF-alpha inhibitor who develops a localized skin lesion. The histopathology reveals features suggestive of both psoriasis and cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), specifically mycosis fungoides (MF). The key challenge is differentiating between a psoriatic reaction pattern and early-stage MF, which can be difficult due to overlapping histological features. Immunohistochemistry plays a crucial role in this differentiation. Loss of CD7 is a well-recognized marker in CTCL, particularly MF. CD7 is a T-cell marker normally expressed on most T cells. Its absence or reduced expression in a significant proportion of T cells within an atypical lymphoid infiltrate raises suspicion for CTCL. While other markers like CD4 and CD8 are important for T-cell subset identification, loss of CD7 is more specific for CTCL in the context of a psoriasiform dermatitis. CD30 positivity is associated with lymphoproliferative disorders, including some types of CTCL (e.g., anaplastic large cell lymphoma), but is not typically seen in early-stage MF. Ki-67 is a proliferation marker and can be elevated in both psoriasis and CTCL, making it less helpful in distinguishing between the two. HLA-DR is an activation marker that can be upregulated in both conditions. Therefore, the most informative immunohistochemical finding to differentiate MF from a psoriatic reaction in this scenario is loss of CD7. The fact that the patient is on a TNF-alpha inhibitor further complicates the picture, as these drugs can sometimes induce psoriasiform eruptions with atypical features. Therefore, loss of CD7 in the context of clinical history and other histological findings would be most indicative of MF.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
A 58-year-old male with a 20-year history of plaque psoriasis presents to your clinic with new, slightly raised, erythematous patches on his trunk and proximal extremities. These lesions are distinct from his typical psoriatic plaques, exhibiting a subtle poikilodermatous appearance. A shave biopsy is performed on one of these atypical lesions. Given the patient’s history and the concerning clinical presentation raising suspicion for early-stage cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL) mimicking psoriasis, which immunohistochemical marker is MOST crucial to include in the initial diagnostic workup of the biopsy specimen to differentiate between psoriasis and CTCL? Consider the need to identify aberrant T-cell populations and distinguish them from the inflammatory infiltrate typically seen in psoriasis. The goal is to identify a marker whose presence or absence would be most informative in differentiating these two conditions in this specific clinical context.
Correct
The scenario presents a complex case involving a patient with a history of psoriasis who now presents with atypical skin lesions suspicious for cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL). The initial biopsy is crucial, and the choice of immunohistochemical markers is paramount to differentiate CTCL from psoriasis and other inflammatory dermatoses. While CD3 is a pan-T cell marker and CD20 marks B cells (useful to rule out B-cell lymphomas), they are not the primary markers to distinguish CTCL from psoriasis. CD7 is a T-cell marker often *lost* in CTCL, particularly in Sézary syndrome and mycosis fungoides. Loss of CD7, in conjunction with other markers, is a strong indicator of CTCL. CD30 is positive in some CTCL variants (e.g., lymphomatoid papulosis and some cases of anaplastic large cell lymphoma) but is not a reliable marker for all CTCL cases or for distinguishing CTCL from psoriasis in general. CLA (cutaneous lymphocyte antigen) helps identify skin-homing T cells but is not specific to CTCL and can be elevated in psoriasis. Therefore, while CLA can be helpful in the context of other findings, CD7 is the most crucial marker in this scenario because its *loss* supports a diagnosis of CTCL over psoriasis. This is because CTCL T-cells often lose expression of CD7. The other markers, while potentially useful in a broader panel, are not as directly relevant for distinguishing CTCL from psoriasis in the initial biopsy assessment as CD7 is. The diagnosis requires careful correlation of clinical, histological, and immunophenotypic findings.
Incorrect
The scenario presents a complex case involving a patient with a history of psoriasis who now presents with atypical skin lesions suspicious for cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL). The initial biopsy is crucial, and the choice of immunohistochemical markers is paramount to differentiate CTCL from psoriasis and other inflammatory dermatoses. While CD3 is a pan-T cell marker and CD20 marks B cells (useful to rule out B-cell lymphomas), they are not the primary markers to distinguish CTCL from psoriasis. CD7 is a T-cell marker often *lost* in CTCL, particularly in Sézary syndrome and mycosis fungoides. Loss of CD7, in conjunction with other markers, is a strong indicator of CTCL. CD30 is positive in some CTCL variants (e.g., lymphomatoid papulosis and some cases of anaplastic large cell lymphoma) but is not a reliable marker for all CTCL cases or for distinguishing CTCL from psoriasis in general. CLA (cutaneous lymphocyte antigen) helps identify skin-homing T cells but is not specific to CTCL and can be elevated in psoriasis. Therefore, while CLA can be helpful in the context of other findings, CD7 is the most crucial marker in this scenario because its *loss* supports a diagnosis of CTCL over psoriasis. This is because CTCL T-cells often lose expression of CD7. The other markers, while potentially useful in a broader panel, are not as directly relevant for distinguishing CTCL from psoriasis in the initial biopsy assessment as CD7 is. The diagnosis requires careful correlation of clinical, histological, and immunophenotypic findings.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
A 7-year-old boy presents to your clinic with a new, rapidly growing, flesh-colored nodule on his arm. On examination, you observe a 5 mm, smooth, flesh-colored papule with a central umbilication. The lesion is not painful or itchy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a new, rapidly growing, flesh-colored nodule with a smooth surface and central umbilication. The key to answering this question lies in recognizing the clinical presentation of molluscum contagiosum and understanding the appropriate management options. Molluscum contagiosum is a common viral skin infection caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus (MCV), a poxvirus. It is characterized by small, raised, flesh-colored or pearly papules with a central umbilication. The lesions are typically asymptomatic but can be itchy or irritated. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection typically presents with grouped vesicles on an erythematous base. Verruca vulgaris (common wart) is caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) and typically presents with rough, keratotic papules. Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that typically presents as a pearly papule or nodule with telangiectasias. Curettage is a simple and effective method for treating molluscum contagiosum. It involves using a curette to scrape off the lesions. This is a quick and relatively painless procedure that can be performed in the office.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a new, rapidly growing, flesh-colored nodule with a smooth surface and central umbilication. The key to answering this question lies in recognizing the clinical presentation of molluscum contagiosum and understanding the appropriate management options. Molluscum contagiosum is a common viral skin infection caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus (MCV), a poxvirus. It is characterized by small, raised, flesh-colored or pearly papules with a central umbilication. The lesions are typically asymptomatic but can be itchy or irritated. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection typically presents with grouped vesicles on an erythematous base. Verruca vulgaris (common wart) is caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) and typically presents with rough, keratotic papules. Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that typically presents as a pearly papule or nodule with telangiectasias. Curettage is a simple and effective method for treating molluscum contagiosum. It involves using a curette to scrape off the lesions. This is a quick and relatively painless procedure that can be performed in the office.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A 35-year-old male presents to your clinic with a several-year history of erythematous plaques with silvery scale on his elbows, knees, and scalp. He also reports nail pitting. His father had similar skin findings. Based on the clinical presentation, you suspect psoriasis. A skin biopsy is performed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions such as eczematous dermatitis or pityriasis rubra pilaris. The initial hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stain reveals epidermal hyperplasia, parakeratosis, and dilated capillaries in the dermal papillae. To further confirm the diagnosis of psoriasis and highlight the characteristic keratinocyte proliferation, which of the following immunohistochemical stains would be most helpful in this scenario? Consider the underlying pathophysiology of psoriasis and the specific markers that highlight key features of the disease when selecting your answer. The biopsy results must correlate with the clinical suspicion of psoriasis.
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a history highly suggestive of psoriasis (erythematous plaques with silvery scale, nail pitting, family history). The biopsy is crucial for confirming the diagnosis and ruling out other conditions that may mimic psoriasis clinically. While hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) staining is the standard initial stain for evaluating tissue morphology, certain histological features of psoriasis can be highlighted and confirmed with additional stains and markers. Keratinization markers are particularly useful in this context. K16 is a keratin that is highly expressed in hyperproliferative keratinocytes, which are a hallmark of psoriasis. Therefore, an immunohistochemical stain for K16 would be expected to show increased expression in the epidermis of a psoriatic lesion, confirming the diagnosis and differentiating it from other inflammatory dermatoses. While Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain is useful for identifying fungal organisms, it is not particularly helpful in diagnosing psoriasis. Fontana-Masson stain is used to detect melanin and would not be relevant in this case. Toluidine blue stain is used to identify mast cells and is more relevant in conditions like urticaria pigmentosa. The key is to understand which markers highlight the specific pathology of psoriasis, namely the abnormal keratinocyte proliferation.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a history highly suggestive of psoriasis (erythematous plaques with silvery scale, nail pitting, family history). The biopsy is crucial for confirming the diagnosis and ruling out other conditions that may mimic psoriasis clinically. While hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) staining is the standard initial stain for evaluating tissue morphology, certain histological features of psoriasis can be highlighted and confirmed with additional stains and markers. Keratinization markers are particularly useful in this context. K16 is a keratin that is highly expressed in hyperproliferative keratinocytes, which are a hallmark of psoriasis. Therefore, an immunohistochemical stain for K16 would be expected to show increased expression in the epidermis of a psoriatic lesion, confirming the diagnosis and differentiating it from other inflammatory dermatoses. While Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain is useful for identifying fungal organisms, it is not particularly helpful in diagnosing psoriasis. Fontana-Masson stain is used to detect melanin and would not be relevant in this case. Toluidine blue stain is used to identify mast cells and is more relevant in conditions like urticaria pigmentosa. The key is to understand which markers highlight the specific pathology of psoriasis, namely the abnormal keratinocyte proliferation.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A 68-year-old male presents with a chronic, ulcerated lesion on his lower extremity. A biopsy is performed, and histopathological examination reveals marked acanthosis, hyperkeratosis, and pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia. Immunohistochemical staining is performed to further characterize the lesion and differentiate between well-differentiated cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma (cSCC) and pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia (PEH). Which of the following immunohistochemical findings, in conjunction with the clinical presentation, would most strongly favor a diagnosis of pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia (PEH) over well-differentiated cSCC?
Correct
The correct answer involves understanding the interplay between specific keratin markers, the location of the lesion, and the differential diagnosis of cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma (cSCC) and pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia (PEH). cSCC typically exhibits full-thickness loss of keratin 17 expression, while PEH retains keratin 17 expression. Keratin 10 is a marker of terminal differentiation, and its presence or absence isn’t as crucial in distinguishing these two entities. Keratin 5/6 is a basal layer marker and is usually present in both cSCC and PEH. The location of the lesion (lower extremity) is more commonly associated with PEH. Therefore, the histopathological finding that best supports a diagnosis of PEH in this scenario is the retention of keratin 17 expression. The other options are more characteristic of cSCC. The key is to recognize that while both conditions can exhibit acanthosis and hyperkeratosis, the specific keratin expression pattern, in conjunction with the lesion’s location, is critical for accurate differentiation. Keratin 17 is an intermediate filament protein expressed in basal keratinocytes and is often retained in benign or reactive hyperplasias but lost in malignant transformations like cSCC. Therefore, the retention of keratin 17 expression in a lesion on the lower extremity favors PEH over cSCC.
Incorrect
The correct answer involves understanding the interplay between specific keratin markers, the location of the lesion, and the differential diagnosis of cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma (cSCC) and pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia (PEH). cSCC typically exhibits full-thickness loss of keratin 17 expression, while PEH retains keratin 17 expression. Keratin 10 is a marker of terminal differentiation, and its presence or absence isn’t as crucial in distinguishing these two entities. Keratin 5/6 is a basal layer marker and is usually present in both cSCC and PEH. The location of the lesion (lower extremity) is more commonly associated with PEH. Therefore, the histopathological finding that best supports a diagnosis of PEH in this scenario is the retention of keratin 17 expression. The other options are more characteristic of cSCC. The key is to recognize that while both conditions can exhibit acanthosis and hyperkeratosis, the specific keratin expression pattern, in conjunction with the lesion’s location, is critical for accurate differentiation. Keratin 17 is an intermediate filament protein expressed in basal keratinocytes and is often retained in benign or reactive hyperplasias but lost in malignant transformations like cSCC. Therefore, the retention of keratin 17 expression in a lesion on the lower extremity favors PEH over cSCC.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
A 62-year-old male presents with a chronic, pruritic, erythematous patch on his upper thigh that has been present for several years. The lesion has been treated with topical corticosteroids without significant improvement. A skin biopsy is performed, and histopathological examination reveals a superficial perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate with epidermotropism of atypical lymphocytes exhibiting cerebriform nuclei. The pathologist is concerned about the possibility of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), specifically mycosis fungoides. To further investigate, immunohistochemical staining is performed. Which of the following immunohistochemical markers would be MOST helpful in distinguishing CTCL from benign inflammatory dermatoses in this clinical scenario?
Correct
The correct approach involves understanding the specificities of immunohistochemical markers for distinguishing cutaneous T-cell lymphomas (CTCL) from benign inflammatory dermatoses. While CD3 is a pan-T cell marker, its expression alone is not sufficient to differentiate CTCL from benign conditions. CD7 is a T-cell marker that is frequently lost in CTCL, particularly in Sézary syndrome and mycosis fungoides. Loss of CD7, especially in conjunction with other T-cell markers, is a strong indicator of CTCL. CD20 is a B-cell marker and would not be helpful in this scenario. CD30 is expressed in a subset of CTCL, specifically anaplastic large cell lymphoma, but is not a reliable marker for distinguishing all CTCL from benign inflammatory conditions. Therefore, the most useful marker in distinguishing CTCL from benign inflammatory dermatoses in this scenario is CD7, as its loss of expression is a characteristic feature of CTCL. A stain showing a loss of CD7 expression would be highly suggestive of CTCL, prompting further investigation. The other options, while relevant in other contexts, do not provide the discriminatory power needed in this specific clinical scenario. The loss of CD7 is often assessed in conjunction with other markers like CD2, CD3, and CD5 to increase diagnostic accuracy.
Incorrect
The correct approach involves understanding the specificities of immunohistochemical markers for distinguishing cutaneous T-cell lymphomas (CTCL) from benign inflammatory dermatoses. While CD3 is a pan-T cell marker, its expression alone is not sufficient to differentiate CTCL from benign conditions. CD7 is a T-cell marker that is frequently lost in CTCL, particularly in Sézary syndrome and mycosis fungoides. Loss of CD7, especially in conjunction with other T-cell markers, is a strong indicator of CTCL. CD20 is a B-cell marker and would not be helpful in this scenario. CD30 is expressed in a subset of CTCL, specifically anaplastic large cell lymphoma, but is not a reliable marker for distinguishing all CTCL from benign inflammatory conditions. Therefore, the most useful marker in distinguishing CTCL from benign inflammatory dermatoses in this scenario is CD7, as its loss of expression is a characteristic feature of CTCL. A stain showing a loss of CD7 expression would be highly suggestive of CTCL, prompting further investigation. The other options, while relevant in other contexts, do not provide the discriminatory power needed in this specific clinical scenario. The loss of CD7 is often assessed in conjunction with other markers like CD2, CD3, and CD5 to increase diagnostic accuracy.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A 68-year-old male presents with a rapidly growing, ulcerated lesion on his left lower leg. He has a history of melanoma on his back, diagnosed five years ago, which was treated with wide local excision and adjuvant BRAF inhibitor therapy for six months due to a BRAF V600E mutation. A biopsy of the leg lesion is performed. Histopathology reveals a poorly differentiated tumor with epithelioid morphology and significant pleomorphism. Immunohistochemical staining for Melan-A and MART-1 are negative. Given the patient’s history and the staining results, which of the following immunohistochemical stains would be the MOST appropriate and reliable combination to confirm the diagnosis of metastatic melanoma in this scenario, considering potential marker loss due to prior BRAF inhibitor therapy and tumor dedifferentiation?
Correct
The correct approach to this scenario involves understanding the interplay between immunohistochemical markers, the stage of melanoma progression, and the impact of targeted therapies. Loss of melanocytic markers like Melan-A and MART-1 can occur in advanced melanoma, especially after targeted therapies such as BRAF inhibitors. This is often due to dedifferentiation of the tumor cells or immune-mediated destruction of marker-expressing cells. SOX10, while generally a more reliable marker, can also be downregulated, although it’s less common than Melan-A or MART-1 loss. S100 is less specific and can be expressed in other cell types, so while helpful, it’s not definitive. HMB-45 expression is usually associated with more differentiated melanocytes and can be decreased or absent in advanced or treated melanomas. Therefore, a melanoma that has lost Melan-A and MART-1, especially post-BRAF inhibitor therapy, would ideally be identified using a combination of SOX10 and S100. While other markers could be used in a broader panel, these two provide the most robust and practical approach in this scenario. The key is to choose the combination that maximizes sensitivity and specificity for melanoma in the context of potential marker loss due to treatment or tumor progression. This ensures accurate diagnosis and avoids misclassification of the tumor.
Incorrect
The correct approach to this scenario involves understanding the interplay between immunohistochemical markers, the stage of melanoma progression, and the impact of targeted therapies. Loss of melanocytic markers like Melan-A and MART-1 can occur in advanced melanoma, especially after targeted therapies such as BRAF inhibitors. This is often due to dedifferentiation of the tumor cells or immune-mediated destruction of marker-expressing cells. SOX10, while generally a more reliable marker, can also be downregulated, although it’s less common than Melan-A or MART-1 loss. S100 is less specific and can be expressed in other cell types, so while helpful, it’s not definitive. HMB-45 expression is usually associated with more differentiated melanocytes and can be decreased or absent in advanced or treated melanomas. Therefore, a melanoma that has lost Melan-A and MART-1, especially post-BRAF inhibitor therapy, would ideally be identified using a combination of SOX10 and S100. While other markers could be used in a broader panel, these two provide the most robust and practical approach in this scenario. The key is to choose the combination that maximizes sensitivity and specificity for melanoma in the context of potential marker loss due to treatment or tumor progression. This ensures accurate diagnosis and avoids misclassification of the tumor.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
A 62-year-old male with a 20-year history of psoriasis presents to your clinic with a new, persistent, slightly raised, erythematous patch on his lower back. The lesion is minimally pruritic and has been present for approximately 6 months, resisting typical topical psoriasis treatments. A shave biopsy is performed. Histopathology reveals a superficial dermal infiltrate of lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei. The epidermis shows mild spongiosis and focal parakeratosis. Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain is negative. Given the patient’s history of psoriasis and the histological findings, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in evaluating this patient’s lesion to differentiate between a psoriatic plaque and early-stage mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T-cell lymphoma)? This decision must take into account the potential need for further treatment and the implications of an incorrect diagnosis. Consider the limitations of standard histological assessment in differentiating these conditions, especially in early stages, and the importance of identifying key diagnostic markers. The patient is otherwise healthy, with no significant past medical history other than psoriasis, and is not currently taking any systemic medications.
Correct
The scenario presents a complex case involving a patient with a history of psoriasis who now presents with a lesion suspicious for malignancy. The key to correctly answering this question lies in understanding the diagnostic challenges presented by overlapping features of psoriasis and cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), specifically mycosis fungoides. While routine histology is crucial, it may not always be sufficient to differentiate between these two conditions, especially in early stages of CTCL. Immunohistochemistry plays a critical role in distinguishing CTCL from psoriasis. Specifically, the loss of certain T-cell markers, such as CD7 or CD26, is a hallmark of CTCL. In psoriasis, T cells are typically reactive but maintain normal expression of these markers. Therefore, if the T cells in the patient’s biopsy sample show a loss of CD7 or CD26, it strongly suggests CTCL rather than psoriasis. T-cell receptor (TCR) gene rearrangement studies can further support the diagnosis of CTCL by detecting clonal T-cell populations. Flow cytometry on peripheral blood or skin biopsies can also help identify abnormal T-cell populations. While special stains for fungi and bacteria are important to rule out infectious etiologies, they are less relevant in differentiating psoriasis from CTCL. Deeper biopsies might be considered if the initial biopsy is superficial or non-diagnostic, but the immunohistochemical findings are the most crucial factor in this scenario. Given the patient’s history of psoriasis, the overlapping clinical and histological features, and the need to rule out CTCL, immunohistochemical staining for T-cell markers, particularly CD7 and CD26, is the most appropriate next step.
Incorrect
The scenario presents a complex case involving a patient with a history of psoriasis who now presents with a lesion suspicious for malignancy. The key to correctly answering this question lies in understanding the diagnostic challenges presented by overlapping features of psoriasis and cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL), specifically mycosis fungoides. While routine histology is crucial, it may not always be sufficient to differentiate between these two conditions, especially in early stages of CTCL. Immunohistochemistry plays a critical role in distinguishing CTCL from psoriasis. Specifically, the loss of certain T-cell markers, such as CD7 or CD26, is a hallmark of CTCL. In psoriasis, T cells are typically reactive but maintain normal expression of these markers. Therefore, if the T cells in the patient’s biopsy sample show a loss of CD7 or CD26, it strongly suggests CTCL rather than psoriasis. T-cell receptor (TCR) gene rearrangement studies can further support the diagnosis of CTCL by detecting clonal T-cell populations. Flow cytometry on peripheral blood or skin biopsies can also help identify abnormal T-cell populations. While special stains for fungi and bacteria are important to rule out infectious etiologies, they are less relevant in differentiating psoriasis from CTCL. Deeper biopsies might be considered if the initial biopsy is superficial or non-diagnostic, but the immunohistochemical findings are the most crucial factor in this scenario. Given the patient’s history of psoriasis, the overlapping clinical and histological features, and the need to rule out CTCL, immunohistochemical staining for T-cell markers, particularly CD7 and CD26, is the most appropriate next step.