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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
A 62-year-old individual presents to the hematology clinic at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University with a palpable enlarged spleen extending to the iliac crest and laboratory findings revealing a platelet count of \(950 \times 10^9/L\) and a normal white blood cell count and hemoglobin. Cytogenetic analysis of the bone marrow aspirate is negative for the Philadelphia chromosome. Considering the diagnostic framework for Philadelphia chromosome-negative myeloproliferative neoplasms, which of the following molecular investigations is most critical for initial subtyping and prognostic stratification in this patient?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a newly diagnosed Philadelphia chromosome-negative myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN) exhibiting marked thrombocytosis and splenomegaly. The key diagnostic and prognostic markers in this context are the JAK2 V617F mutation, CALR mutations, and MPL mutations. These mutations are mutually exclusive and are found in the vast majority of Philadelphia chromosome-negative MPNs. Specifically, JAK2 V617F is present in approximately 95% of polycythemia vera (PV) cases, 50-60% of essential thrombocythemia (ET) cases, and 30-50% of primary myelofibrosis (PMF) cases. CALR mutations are found in about 20-25% of ET and PMF cases that are JAK2 V617F negative. MPL mutations are less common, occurring in about 5-10% of JAK2 and CALR negative ET and PMF. Given the patient’s presentation of marked thrombocytosis and splenomegaly, and the absence of the Philadelphia chromosome, the diagnostic workup should prioritize the detection of these driver mutations. The correct approach involves molecular testing for JAK2 V617F, CALR, and MPL mutations to establish the specific MPN subtype and inform prognosis and management strategies, aligning with the diagnostic criteria and molecular understanding of these disorders as emphasized in advanced hematopathology training at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a newly diagnosed Philadelphia chromosome-negative myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN) exhibiting marked thrombocytosis and splenomegaly. The key diagnostic and prognostic markers in this context are the JAK2 V617F mutation, CALR mutations, and MPL mutations. These mutations are mutually exclusive and are found in the vast majority of Philadelphia chromosome-negative MPNs. Specifically, JAK2 V617F is present in approximately 95% of polycythemia vera (PV) cases, 50-60% of essential thrombocythemia (ET) cases, and 30-50% of primary myelofibrosis (PMF) cases. CALR mutations are found in about 20-25% of ET and PMF cases that are JAK2 V617F negative. MPL mutations are less common, occurring in about 5-10% of JAK2 and CALR negative ET and PMF. Given the patient’s presentation of marked thrombocytosis and splenomegaly, and the absence of the Philadelphia chromosome, the diagnostic workup should prioritize the detection of these driver mutations. The correct approach involves molecular testing for JAK2 V617F, CALR, and MPL mutations to establish the specific MPN subtype and inform prognosis and management strategies, aligning with the diagnostic criteria and molecular understanding of these disorders as emphasized in advanced hematopathology training at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
During a diagnostic workup at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, a bone marrow aspirate from a 65-year-old male patient reveals a population of atypical lymphoid cells. Flow cytometry analysis of these cells demonstrates the following immunophenotype: CD19+, CD20 (dim), CD79a (cytoplasmic+), CD5+, CD10+, CD23-, CD103-, CD11c-. Considering the differential diagnoses for B-cell lymphoid neoplasms, which of the following categories of lymphoid neoplasms is most strongly suggested by this specific immunophenotypic profile?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the diagnostic implications of specific immunophenotypic findings in a B-cell lymphoid neoplasm, particularly in the context of differentiating between various entities. The core of the diagnostic challenge lies in interpreting the aberrant expression of CD5 and CD10 in conjunction with other markers. CD5 is typically associated with mantle cell lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma, while CD10 is characteristic of follicular lymphoma and some subtypes of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. The co-expression of both CD5 and CD10 in a B-cell neoplasm is a key feature that strongly points towards a specific diagnostic category. In this scenario, the presence of CD5 and CD10 positivity, along with the aberrant expression of CD79a and cytoplasmic immunoglobulin, and the absence of CD23, CD103, and CD11c, are critical discriminators. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is typically CD5+, CD10-, CD23+. Mantle cell lymphoma (MCL) is CD5+, CD10 variable (often negative), and lacks CD23. Follicular lymphoma is CD10+, CD5-, CD23-. Given the co-expression of CD5 and CD10, and the absence of CD23, the immunophenotype is most consistent with a B-cell neoplasm that exhibits this dual positivity. While some rare variants of CLL can be CD10+, and some lymphomas can have unusual CD5 expression, the combination presented, particularly the absence of CD23, strongly favors a diagnosis that encompasses this specific immunophenotypic profile. The absence of CD103 and CD11c further helps to exclude certain T-cell or hairy cell leukemia-like presentations. Therefore, the immunophenotype described is most indicative of a neoplastic process that commonly presents with this specific combination of markers, distinguishing it from entities that typically express only one or neither of these markers, or express CD23.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the diagnostic implications of specific immunophenotypic findings in a B-cell lymphoid neoplasm, particularly in the context of differentiating between various entities. The core of the diagnostic challenge lies in interpreting the aberrant expression of CD5 and CD10 in conjunction with other markers. CD5 is typically associated with mantle cell lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma, while CD10 is characteristic of follicular lymphoma and some subtypes of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. The co-expression of both CD5 and CD10 in a B-cell neoplasm is a key feature that strongly points towards a specific diagnostic category. In this scenario, the presence of CD5 and CD10 positivity, along with the aberrant expression of CD79a and cytoplasmic immunoglobulin, and the absence of CD23, CD103, and CD11c, are critical discriminators. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is typically CD5+, CD10-, CD23+. Mantle cell lymphoma (MCL) is CD5+, CD10 variable (often negative), and lacks CD23. Follicular lymphoma is CD10+, CD5-, CD23-. Given the co-expression of CD5 and CD10, and the absence of CD23, the immunophenotype is most consistent with a B-cell neoplasm that exhibits this dual positivity. While some rare variants of CLL can be CD10+, and some lymphomas can have unusual CD5 expression, the combination presented, particularly the absence of CD23, strongly favors a diagnosis that encompasses this specific immunophenotypic profile. The absence of CD103 and CD11c further helps to exclude certain T-cell or hairy cell leukemia-like presentations. Therefore, the immunophenotype described is most indicative of a neoplastic process that commonly presents with this specific combination of markers, distinguishing it from entities that typically express only one or neither of these markers, or express CD23.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
A 65-year-old individual presents with pancytopenia, splenomegaly, and peripheral blood findings including basophilia and circulating blasts. Bone marrow morphology reveals hypercellularity with dysplastic changes in erythroid and myeloid lineages. Cytogenetic analysis identifies the Philadelphia chromosome, confirmed by molecular testing revealing the *BCR-ABL1* fusion transcript. Considering the diagnostic framework emphasized at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, which of the following diagnostic conclusions most accurately reflects the integration of these findings for patient management?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific genetic alterations and their impact on the clinical presentation and diagnostic approach to a particular myeloid neoplasm, emphasizing the nuanced diagnostic criteria used in hematopathology. The correct answer hinges on recognizing that the presence of a *BCR-ABL1* fusion gene, a hallmark of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), when identified in a patient presenting with features suggestive of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) or myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN), fundamentally reclassifies the diagnosis. Specifically, the International Working Group for the Classification of Myeloid Neoplasms (MDS/MPN) criteria recognize Philadelphia chromosome-positive myelodysplastic syndrome or Philadelphia chromosome-positive myeloproliferative neoplasm as distinct entities. The presence of the *BCR-ABL1* fusion gene overrides a primary diagnosis of MDS or a non-Philadelphia chromosome-positive MPN, necessitating a diagnostic approach focused on the management of CML or its variants. This understanding is critical for accurate diagnosis, prognostication, and guiding therapy, aligning with the rigorous diagnostic standards expected at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The other options represent plausible but incorrect diagnostic considerations. For instance, while *JAK2* mutations are common in MPNs, their presence alone does not necessitate a reclassification in the same way as the *BCR-ABL1* fusion. Similarly, while certain cytogenetic abnormalities are associated with MDS and MPNs, the specific *BCR-ABL1* translocation has a unique diagnostic and therapeutic implication that dictates a different management pathway. The identification of *FLT3* mutations is important for prognosis in AML but does not alter the fundamental classification of an underlying MDS or MPN in the context of a Philadelphia chromosome. Therefore, recognizing the diagnostic primacy of the *BCR-ABL1* fusion gene is paramount.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific genetic alterations and their impact on the clinical presentation and diagnostic approach to a particular myeloid neoplasm, emphasizing the nuanced diagnostic criteria used in hematopathology. The correct answer hinges on recognizing that the presence of a *BCR-ABL1* fusion gene, a hallmark of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), when identified in a patient presenting with features suggestive of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) or myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN), fundamentally reclassifies the diagnosis. Specifically, the International Working Group for the Classification of Myeloid Neoplasms (MDS/MPN) criteria recognize Philadelphia chromosome-positive myelodysplastic syndrome or Philadelphia chromosome-positive myeloproliferative neoplasm as distinct entities. The presence of the *BCR-ABL1* fusion gene overrides a primary diagnosis of MDS or a non-Philadelphia chromosome-positive MPN, necessitating a diagnostic approach focused on the management of CML or its variants. This understanding is critical for accurate diagnosis, prognostication, and guiding therapy, aligning with the rigorous diagnostic standards expected at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The other options represent plausible but incorrect diagnostic considerations. For instance, while *JAK2* mutations are common in MPNs, their presence alone does not necessitate a reclassification in the same way as the *BCR-ABL1* fusion. Similarly, while certain cytogenetic abnormalities are associated with MDS and MPNs, the specific *BCR-ABL1* translocation has a unique diagnostic and therapeutic implication that dictates a different management pathway. The identification of *FLT3* mutations is important for prognosis in AML but does not alter the fundamental classification of an underlying MDS or MPN in the context of a Philadelphia chromosome. Therefore, recognizing the diagnostic primacy of the *BCR-ABL1* fusion gene is paramount.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
A 68-year-old individual is admitted to American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University Medical Center with progressive fatigue, easy bruising, and recurrent infections. Peripheral blood smear reveals pancytopenia with mild anisopoikilocytosis. Bone marrow aspirate shows hypocellularity with trilineage dysplasia, including megaloblastoid erythroid precursors and hypolobulated megakaryocytes. Flow cytometry analysis of the bone marrow aspirate demonstrates a myeloid population aberrantly expressing CD56, in addition to the expected myeloid markers CD13, CD33, and CD117. Considering the differential diagnosis of a myeloid neoplasm, which immunophenotypic finding is most suggestive of a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or a related entity with dysplastic features, as opposed to a classical myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN)?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the diagnostic utility of specific immunophenotypic markers in distinguishing between distinct myeloid neoplasms, particularly focusing on the nuances of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) and myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN). In the context of a patient presenting with pancytopenia and dysplastic changes in the bone marrow, the identification of a specific immunophenotypic aberrant expression pattern is crucial for accurate classification. The presence of CD13, CD33, and CD117 on myeloid precursors is generally considered normal. However, the aberrant expression of CD56, a natural killer cell marker, on myeloid blasts or maturing myeloid cells, particularly in the absence of significant lymphoid populations, is a hallmark feature strongly associated with certain subtypes of MDS, specifically MDS with excess blasts, and can also be seen in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) arising from MDS. Conversely, while CD117 is often expressed in MPNs, the specific aberrant co-expression of CD56 on myeloid precursors, as described, is less characteristic of classical MPNs like polycythemia vera or essential thrombocythemia, and more indicative of a dysplastic process or a transformation to AML. Therefore, the finding of CD56 positivity on myeloid cells in this clinical scenario points towards a diagnosis within the MDS spectrum or a related myeloid malignancy with dysplastic features, rather than a typical MPN. The explanation emphasizes that while CD13, CD33, and CD117 are standard myeloid markers, CD56’s aberrant presence on these cells is the key differentiator, aligning with the diagnostic criteria for MDS or its complications, which is a core concept in hematopathology training at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the diagnostic utility of specific immunophenotypic markers in distinguishing between distinct myeloid neoplasms, particularly focusing on the nuances of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) and myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN). In the context of a patient presenting with pancytopenia and dysplastic changes in the bone marrow, the identification of a specific immunophenotypic aberrant expression pattern is crucial for accurate classification. The presence of CD13, CD33, and CD117 on myeloid precursors is generally considered normal. However, the aberrant expression of CD56, a natural killer cell marker, on myeloid blasts or maturing myeloid cells, particularly in the absence of significant lymphoid populations, is a hallmark feature strongly associated with certain subtypes of MDS, specifically MDS with excess blasts, and can also be seen in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) arising from MDS. Conversely, while CD117 is often expressed in MPNs, the specific aberrant co-expression of CD56 on myeloid precursors, as described, is less characteristic of classical MPNs like polycythemia vera or essential thrombocythemia, and more indicative of a dysplastic process or a transformation to AML. Therefore, the finding of CD56 positivity on myeloid cells in this clinical scenario points towards a diagnosis within the MDS spectrum or a related myeloid malignancy with dysplastic features, rather than a typical MPN. The explanation emphasizes that while CD13, CD33, and CD117 are standard myeloid markers, CD56’s aberrant presence on these cells is the key differentiator, aligning with the diagnostic criteria for MDS or its complications, which is a core concept in hematopathology training at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider a 65-year-old male presenting to the American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University’s affiliated hospital with fatigue, splenomegaly, and a peripheral blood count revealing 70% blasts. Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy show a hypercellular marrow with 85% myeloid blasts. Cytogenetic analysis reveals a complex karyotype including a Philadelphia chromosome (\(t(9;22)(q34;q11.2)\)), along with additional chromosomal abnormalities. Molecular studies confirm the presence of the *BCR-ABL1* fusion transcript. Based on the integrated findings and current hematopathology classification systems, what is the most accurate diagnostic classification for this patient’s condition?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific genetic alterations and their impact on cellular differentiation and proliferation in the context of myeloid neoplasms, a core area of hematopathology. The scenario describes a patient with a newly diagnosed myeloid neoplasm exhibiting a complex karyotype and specific molecular findings. The key to answering this question lies in recognizing that while *BCR-ABL1* is a hallmark of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML), its presence in a patient presenting with features suggestive of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML), particularly with additional adverse prognostic factors like a complex karyotype, necessitates a re-evaluation of the diagnostic classification. The presence of *BCR-ABL1* in the context of a complex karyotype and overt blast crisis features strongly points towards a diagnosis of CML in blast phase, rather than de novo AML with a *BCR-ABL1* fusion. The explanation focuses on the established diagnostic criteria and the prognostic implications of these findings within the framework of the World Health Organization (WHO) classification of myeloid neoplasms. Specifically, the presence of the *BCR-ABL1* fusion gene, especially when accompanied by a complex karyotype and a significant increase in myeloid blasts, is a defining characteristic of CML in blast phase. This phase is considered an accelerated or blast crisis stage of CML, which is biologically distinct from de novo AML, even if the latter also harbors a *BCR-ABL1* fusion. The explanation emphasizes that understanding the molecular pathogenesis and the specific genetic lesions is paramount for accurate classification and appropriate therapeutic strategy selection, which is a fundamental principle taught at the American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The correct approach involves integrating cytogenetic, molecular, and morphological data to arrive at the most precise diagnosis, recognizing that CML in blast phase is treated differently than de novo AML.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific genetic alterations and their impact on cellular differentiation and proliferation in the context of myeloid neoplasms, a core area of hematopathology. The scenario describes a patient with a newly diagnosed myeloid neoplasm exhibiting a complex karyotype and specific molecular findings. The key to answering this question lies in recognizing that while *BCR-ABL1* is a hallmark of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML), its presence in a patient presenting with features suggestive of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML), particularly with additional adverse prognostic factors like a complex karyotype, necessitates a re-evaluation of the diagnostic classification. The presence of *BCR-ABL1* in the context of a complex karyotype and overt blast crisis features strongly points towards a diagnosis of CML in blast phase, rather than de novo AML with a *BCR-ABL1* fusion. The explanation focuses on the established diagnostic criteria and the prognostic implications of these findings within the framework of the World Health Organization (WHO) classification of myeloid neoplasms. Specifically, the presence of the *BCR-ABL1* fusion gene, especially when accompanied by a complex karyotype and a significant increase in myeloid blasts, is a defining characteristic of CML in blast phase. This phase is considered an accelerated or blast crisis stage of CML, which is biologically distinct from de novo AML, even if the latter also harbors a *BCR-ABL1* fusion. The explanation emphasizes that understanding the molecular pathogenesis and the specific genetic lesions is paramount for accurate classification and appropriate therapeutic strategy selection, which is a fundamental principle taught at the American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The correct approach involves integrating cytogenetic, molecular, and morphological data to arrive at the most precise diagnosis, recognizing that CML in blast phase is treated differently than de novo AML.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
During a diagnostic workup at the American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, a bone marrow aspirate from a young adult presents with a hypercellular marrow and a significant blast population. Flow cytometry analysis is performed to characterize these blasts. The immunophenotypic profile reveals positivity for TdT, cytoplasmic CD3, and CD7. Additionally, there is a notable absence of CD19, CD79a, and myeloid antigens such as CD13 and CD33. Based on these findings, which of the following combinations of markers most strongly supports a diagnosis of T-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma?
Correct
The core of this question lies in understanding the distinct immunophenotypic profiles of precursor lymphoid neoplasms, specifically distinguishing between B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma (B-LBL) and T-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma (T-LBL) using flow cytometry. B-LBL typically expresses CD19, CD79a, and cytoplasmic μ-heavy chain, along with terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT). Aberrant expression of myeloid markers like CD13 or CD33 can be seen in a subset. T-LBL, conversely, is characterized by the expression of T-cell lineage markers, most importantly CD3 (cytoplasmic or surface), CD7, and TdT. Crucially, T-LBL often exhibits aberrant expression of B-cell markers such as CD19 or CD79a, or myeloid markers, which can complicate diagnosis. The absence of B-cell markers (CD19, CD79a) and myeloid markers (CD13, CD33) while demonstrating cytoplasmic CD3 and CD7, along with TdT, is the hallmark of a T-cell lineage precursor. Therefore, the presence of CD19 and CD79a alongside cytoplasmic CD3 and CD7 would be highly unusual and indicative of a mixed or aberrant phenotype, but the most consistent and defining feature of T-LBL among the options provided, when considering the typical diagnostic criteria, is the presence of cytoplasmic CD3 and CD7. The question asks for the most definitive marker *in the context of distinguishing T-LBL from B-LBL*. While TdT is common to both, and aberrant myeloid markers can be seen in both, cytoplasmic CD3 and CD7 are lineage-specific for T-cells at the precursor stage. The absence of CD19 and CD79a is critical for ruling out B-LBL.
Incorrect
The core of this question lies in understanding the distinct immunophenotypic profiles of precursor lymphoid neoplasms, specifically distinguishing between B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma (B-LBL) and T-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma (T-LBL) using flow cytometry. B-LBL typically expresses CD19, CD79a, and cytoplasmic μ-heavy chain, along with terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT). Aberrant expression of myeloid markers like CD13 or CD33 can be seen in a subset. T-LBL, conversely, is characterized by the expression of T-cell lineage markers, most importantly CD3 (cytoplasmic or surface), CD7, and TdT. Crucially, T-LBL often exhibits aberrant expression of B-cell markers such as CD19 or CD79a, or myeloid markers, which can complicate diagnosis. The absence of B-cell markers (CD19, CD79a) and myeloid markers (CD13, CD33) while demonstrating cytoplasmic CD3 and CD7, along with TdT, is the hallmark of a T-cell lineage precursor. Therefore, the presence of CD19 and CD79a alongside cytoplasmic CD3 and CD7 would be highly unusual and indicative of a mixed or aberrant phenotype, but the most consistent and defining feature of T-LBL among the options provided, when considering the typical diagnostic criteria, is the presence of cytoplasmic CD3 and CD7. The question asks for the most definitive marker *in the context of distinguishing T-LBL from B-LBL*. While TdT is common to both, and aberrant myeloid markers can be seen in both, cytoplasmic CD3 and CD7 are lineage-specific for T-cells at the precursor stage. The absence of CD19 and CD79a is critical for ruling out B-LBL.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
A 65-year-old individual presents with splenomegaly and thrombocytosis. Peripheral blood smear reveals marked leukocytosis with a left shift, basophilia, and atypical megakaryocytes. Bone marrow biopsy shows hypercellularity with trilineage hyperplasia and increased reticulin fibrosis. Molecular testing reveals a *JAK2* V617F mutation, a *CALR* exon 9 deletion, and a *BCR-ABL1* fusion transcript. Considering the current diagnostic paradigms for myeloid neoplasms as applied at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, which of the following classifications most accurately reflects this patient’s condition?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific molecular alterations and their impact on the diagnostic and prognostic classification of myeloid neoplasms, particularly in the context of the World Health Organization (WHO) classification system. The scenario describes a patient with a myeloid neoplasm exhibiting a complex genetic profile: a *JAK2* V617F mutation, a *CALR* deletion, and a *BCR-ABL1* fusion. According to the current WHO classification of myeloid neoplasms, the presence of a *BCR-ABL1* fusion gene unequivocally defines the entity as Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML), a Philadelphia chromosome-positive (Ph+) myeloproliferative neoplasm. The *BCR-ABL1* fusion is the defining molecular event for CML and takes precedence in classification over other common myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN) driver mutations like *JAK2* V617F or *CALR* mutations. While *JAK2* V617F is characteristic of polycythemia vera, essential thrombocythemia, and primary myelofibrosis, and *CALR* mutations are found in essential thrombocythemia and primary myelofibrosis, their co-occurrence with *BCR-ABL1* does not alter the primary diagnosis of CML. The presence of these additional mutations in a patient with CML can, however, influence prognosis and treatment response, and may be considered in risk stratification or when evaluating for alternative therapeutic strategies, but they do not change the fundamental classification. Therefore, the most accurate classification based on the provided molecular findings is CML.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific molecular alterations and their impact on the diagnostic and prognostic classification of myeloid neoplasms, particularly in the context of the World Health Organization (WHO) classification system. The scenario describes a patient with a myeloid neoplasm exhibiting a complex genetic profile: a *JAK2* V617F mutation, a *CALR* deletion, and a *BCR-ABL1* fusion. According to the current WHO classification of myeloid neoplasms, the presence of a *BCR-ABL1* fusion gene unequivocally defines the entity as Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML), a Philadelphia chromosome-positive (Ph+) myeloproliferative neoplasm. The *BCR-ABL1* fusion is the defining molecular event for CML and takes precedence in classification over other common myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN) driver mutations like *JAK2* V617F or *CALR* mutations. While *JAK2* V617F is characteristic of polycythemia vera, essential thrombocythemia, and primary myelofibrosis, and *CALR* mutations are found in essential thrombocythemia and primary myelofibrosis, their co-occurrence with *BCR-ABL1* does not alter the primary diagnosis of CML. The presence of these additional mutations in a patient with CML can, however, influence prognosis and treatment response, and may be considered in risk stratification or when evaluating for alternative therapeutic strategies, but they do not change the fundamental classification. Therefore, the most accurate classification based on the provided molecular findings is CML.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
A 72-year-old male with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) presents to the neurology clinic with progressive paresthesias in his lower extremities and intermittent blurred vision. Physical examination reveals mild peripheral neuropathy. A peripheral blood smear from a recent routine follow-up appointment, performed prior to the onset of these new symptoms, showed a significant increase in atypical lymphocytes with abundant cytoplasm and distinct cytoplasmic projections, which were not prominent in prior smears. Considering the patient’s underlying CLL and the new neurological manifestations, which of the following diagnostic investigations would be most crucial for elucidating the underlying cause of his current clinical presentation and guiding further management at the American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a known diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) who presents with new onset neurological symptoms and a peripheral blood smear showing atypical lymphocytes with cytoplasmic projections. The key diagnostic consideration here is the potential transformation of CLL into a more aggressive lymphoproliferative disorder, specifically Richter’s transformation or a distinct lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma. Given the neurological findings and the morphology of the lymphocytes, a lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma (LPL) with Waldenström macroglobulinemia (WM) features is a strong possibility. LPL is characterized by the proliferation of small B lymphocytes, plasmacytoid cells, and plasma cells, often producing a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Waldenström macroglobulinemia is a specific subtype of LPL defined by the presence of a significant IgM paraprotein, which can lead to hyperviscosity symptoms. The atypical lymphocytes with cytoplasmic projections observed on the smear are consistent with plasmacytoid differentiation, a hallmark of LPL. While Richter’s transformation is a critical differential, it typically involves transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, which would present with different morphological features and often a more aggressive clinical course without the specific plasmacytoid morphology. The presence of a monoclonal protein, particularly IgM, would further support LPL/WM. Therefore, the most appropriate next diagnostic step to confirm or refute this suspicion and guide management is immunoelectrophoresis with immunofixation, specifically targeting serum proteins to identify and quantify any monoclonal immunoglobulin, and potentially a bone marrow biopsy with immunohistochemistry and flow cytometry to assess the cellular infiltrate and confirm clonality and lineage.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a known diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) who presents with new onset neurological symptoms and a peripheral blood smear showing atypical lymphocytes with cytoplasmic projections. The key diagnostic consideration here is the potential transformation of CLL into a more aggressive lymphoproliferative disorder, specifically Richter’s transformation or a distinct lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma. Given the neurological findings and the morphology of the lymphocytes, a lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma (LPL) with Waldenström macroglobulinemia (WM) features is a strong possibility. LPL is characterized by the proliferation of small B lymphocytes, plasmacytoid cells, and plasma cells, often producing a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Waldenström macroglobulinemia is a specific subtype of LPL defined by the presence of a significant IgM paraprotein, which can lead to hyperviscosity symptoms. The atypical lymphocytes with cytoplasmic projections observed on the smear are consistent with plasmacytoid differentiation, a hallmark of LPL. While Richter’s transformation is a critical differential, it typically involves transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, which would present with different morphological features and often a more aggressive clinical course without the specific plasmacytoid morphology. The presence of a monoclonal protein, particularly IgM, would further support LPL/WM. Therefore, the most appropriate next diagnostic step to confirm or refute this suspicion and guide management is immunoelectrophoresis with immunofixation, specifically targeting serum proteins to identify and quantify any monoclonal immunoglobulin, and potentially a bone marrow biopsy with immunohistochemistry and flow cytometry to assess the cellular infiltrate and confirm clonality and lineage.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
A 68-year-old individual is admitted to American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University Medical Center with progressive fatigue and recurrent infections. Peripheral blood smear reveals pancytopenia with macrocytosis. Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy demonstrate trilineage dysplasia, increased cellularity, and approximately 8% blasts. Flow cytometry analysis of the bone marrow aspirate reveals a myeloid population positive for CD13, CD33, CD117, and HLA-DR, with aberrant co-expression of CD56 and diminished expression of CD11b. Considering the morphological findings and the immunophenotypic profile, which of the following diagnostic categories is most strongly supported by this data for this patient at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the diagnostic utility of specific immunophenotypic markers in differentiating between various myeloid neoplasms, particularly focusing on the nuances of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) and myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN). In the context of a patient presenting with pancytopenia and dysplastic changes in the bone marrow, the differential diagnosis would include MDS, aplastic anemia, and potentially early-stage MPNs or acute myeloid leukemia. The immunophenotypic profile described—CD13, CD33, CD117, and HLA-DR positivity, alongside aberrant CD56 expression and diminished CD11b—is highly suggestive of a myeloid neoplasm with a maturation defect. Specifically, the presence of CD56 in myeloid precursors, particularly when co-expressed with other myeloid markers and showing reduced CD11b, is a recognized aberrant marker in myeloid malignancies. While CD56 can be seen in normal myeloid precursors, its consistent and aberrant expression, especially in conjunction with other findings, points towards a neoplastic process. Among the options provided, the combination of these markers, particularly the aberrant CD56 and reduced CD11b, is most characteristic of myelodysplastic syndromes, which are defined by ineffective hematopoiesis and often exhibit dysplastic changes and aberrant antigen expression. While some MPNs can show aberrant markers, the specific pattern described, especially the diminished CD11b, is less typical for MPNs like CML or primary myelofibrosis, and more aligned with the maturational defects seen in MDS. Acute myeloid leukemia would typically present with a higher blast percentage and potentially a different immunophenotypic profile, though some subtypes can overlap. Aplastic anemia, a non-clonal disorder, would generally show a lack of significant aberrant antigen expression on the few hematopoietic cells present. Therefore, the immunophenotypic findings, when integrated with the clinical presentation and bone marrow morphology, most strongly support a diagnosis within the spectrum of myelodysplastic syndromes.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the diagnostic utility of specific immunophenotypic markers in differentiating between various myeloid neoplasms, particularly focusing on the nuances of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) and myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN). In the context of a patient presenting with pancytopenia and dysplastic changes in the bone marrow, the differential diagnosis would include MDS, aplastic anemia, and potentially early-stage MPNs or acute myeloid leukemia. The immunophenotypic profile described—CD13, CD33, CD117, and HLA-DR positivity, alongside aberrant CD56 expression and diminished CD11b—is highly suggestive of a myeloid neoplasm with a maturation defect. Specifically, the presence of CD56 in myeloid precursors, particularly when co-expressed with other myeloid markers and showing reduced CD11b, is a recognized aberrant marker in myeloid malignancies. While CD56 can be seen in normal myeloid precursors, its consistent and aberrant expression, especially in conjunction with other findings, points towards a neoplastic process. Among the options provided, the combination of these markers, particularly the aberrant CD56 and reduced CD11b, is most characteristic of myelodysplastic syndromes, which are defined by ineffective hematopoiesis and often exhibit dysplastic changes and aberrant antigen expression. While some MPNs can show aberrant markers, the specific pattern described, especially the diminished CD11b, is less typical for MPNs like CML or primary myelofibrosis, and more aligned with the maturational defects seen in MDS. Acute myeloid leukemia would typically present with a higher blast percentage and potentially a different immunophenotypic profile, though some subtypes can overlap. Aplastic anemia, a non-clonal disorder, would generally show a lack of significant aberrant antigen expression on the few hematopoietic cells present. Therefore, the immunophenotypic findings, when integrated with the clinical presentation and bone marrow morphology, most strongly support a diagnosis within the spectrum of myelodysplastic syndromes.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
A 62-year-old male presents to American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University with generalized lymphadenopathy and a history of intermittent fevers and night sweats. A lymph node biopsy is performed. Flow cytometry analysis of the lymph node aspirate reveals a distinct population of T-cells exhibiting the following aberrant immunophenotype: CD3+, CD4+, CD8-, CD7+, CD5-, CD45RO+, and PD-1+. Considering the differential diagnostic considerations within hematopathology at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, which of the following lymphoid neoplasms is most strongly suggested by this immunophenotypic profile?
Correct
The core of this question lies in understanding the distinct immunophenotypic profiles that differentiate various lymphoid neoplasms, particularly in the context of T-cell lymphomas. A key diagnostic challenge in hematopathology is distinguishing between reactive T-cell proliferations and overt T-cell lymphomas, and further differentiating subtypes of T-cell lymphomas. The provided scenario describes a patient with lymphadenopathy and constitutional symptoms, suggestive of a lymphoid malignancy. The flow cytometry data reveals a population of T-cells that are CD3+, CD4+, CD8-, CD7+, CD5-, CD45RO+, and importantly, express PD-1. The absence of CD5 is a critical feature, as many common reactive T-cell proliferations and certain T-cell lymphomas (like mycosis fungoides or Sézary syndrome) often retain CD5 expression. PD-1 expression, while seen in some reactive T-cells, is a hallmark of specific T-cell lymphomas, particularly those with a follicular helper T-cell (Tfh) phenotype. Among the options, Peripheral T-cell Lymphoma, not otherwise specified (PTCL-NOS) is a broad category. Angioimmunoblastic T-cell Lymphoma (AITL) is a specific type of PTCL that frequently arises from Tfh cells and is characterized by PD-1 expression, often with a CD4+ and CD8- phenotype, and typically lacks CD5. Mycosis Fungoides (MF) is a primary cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, and while CD4+ and CD8-, it usually retains CD5 and exhibits a CD45RA- phenotype, with CD45RO being variable. Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma (ALCL), ALK-negative, can be CD4+ and CD8-, but often expresses CD30 and may or may not express PD-1; its typical immunophenotype is distinct from the described scenario, and CD5 negativity is not a defining feature. Therefore, the combination of CD4+, CD8-, CD5-, CD45RO+, and PD-1 expression strongly points towards a T-cell lymphoma with a Tfh-like signature, making AITL the most fitting diagnosis among the choices. The explanation emphasizes the differential diagnostic value of each marker in the context of T-cell lymphoproliferative disorders, highlighting how the absence of CD5 and the presence of PD-1 are particularly discriminative for AITL in this immunophenotypic profile.
Incorrect
The core of this question lies in understanding the distinct immunophenotypic profiles that differentiate various lymphoid neoplasms, particularly in the context of T-cell lymphomas. A key diagnostic challenge in hematopathology is distinguishing between reactive T-cell proliferations and overt T-cell lymphomas, and further differentiating subtypes of T-cell lymphomas. The provided scenario describes a patient with lymphadenopathy and constitutional symptoms, suggestive of a lymphoid malignancy. The flow cytometry data reveals a population of T-cells that are CD3+, CD4+, CD8-, CD7+, CD5-, CD45RO+, and importantly, express PD-1. The absence of CD5 is a critical feature, as many common reactive T-cell proliferations and certain T-cell lymphomas (like mycosis fungoides or Sézary syndrome) often retain CD5 expression. PD-1 expression, while seen in some reactive T-cells, is a hallmark of specific T-cell lymphomas, particularly those with a follicular helper T-cell (Tfh) phenotype. Among the options, Peripheral T-cell Lymphoma, not otherwise specified (PTCL-NOS) is a broad category. Angioimmunoblastic T-cell Lymphoma (AITL) is a specific type of PTCL that frequently arises from Tfh cells and is characterized by PD-1 expression, often with a CD4+ and CD8- phenotype, and typically lacks CD5. Mycosis Fungoides (MF) is a primary cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, and while CD4+ and CD8-, it usually retains CD5 and exhibits a CD45RA- phenotype, with CD45RO being variable. Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma (ALCL), ALK-negative, can be CD4+ and CD8-, but often expresses CD30 and may or may not express PD-1; its typical immunophenotype is distinct from the described scenario, and CD5 negativity is not a defining feature. Therefore, the combination of CD4+, CD8-, CD5-, CD45RO+, and PD-1 expression strongly points towards a T-cell lymphoma with a Tfh-like signature, making AITL the most fitting diagnosis among the choices. The explanation emphasizes the differential diagnostic value of each marker in the context of T-cell lymphoproliferative disorders, highlighting how the absence of CD5 and the presence of PD-1 are particularly discriminative for AITL in this immunophenotypic profile.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
A 62-year-old male presents to the American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University clinic with a history of erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis, and two episodes of deep vein thrombosis within the past year. Genetic testing reveals the JAK2 V617F mutation. Given this finding, which of the following diagnostic evaluations is most crucial for confirming a diagnosis of polycythemia vera and differentiating it from other Philadelphia chromosome-negative myeloproliferative neoplasms at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a newly diagnosed Philadelphia chromosome-negative myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN), specifically polycythemia vera (PV), who is also experiencing recurrent venous thromboembolism (VTE). The JAK2 V617F mutation is a hallmark of PV and is present in approximately 95% of cases. While the presence of the JAK2 V617F mutation is highly suggestive of PV, it can also be found in other MPNs like essential thrombocythemia (ET) and primary myelofibrosis (PMF), albeit at lower frequencies. Therefore, a definitive diagnosis of PV requires meeting specific criteria, which include the presence of the JAK2 V617F mutation or a JAK2 exon 12 mutation, along with other clinical, laboratory, and histopathological findings. The patient’s clinical presentation of erythrocytosis (elevated hemoglobin), thrombocytosis (elevated platelet count), and recurrent VTE are consistent with PV. However, the question asks about the most critical diagnostic step to confirm the diagnosis of PV in this context, given the presence of the JAK2 V617F mutation. While the mutation is a key piece of evidence, it is not pathognomonic for PV alone. The World Health Organization (WHO) classification of myeloid neoplasms provides diagnostic criteria for PV. These criteria emphasize the presence of JAK2 V617F or JAK2 exon 12 mutation as a major criterion, but also require other findings to exclude other MPNs and non-clonal causes of erythrocytosis. Specifically, the WHO criteria for PV include: 1. JAK2 V617F mutation or JAK2 exon 12 mutation. 2. Presence of all three of the following: a. Bone marrow biopsy showing hypercellularity with trilineage hyperplasia (panmyelosis) without reticulin fibrosis. b. Serum erythropoietin level below the lower limit of normal. c. Presence of an endogenous erythroid colony (EEC) in vitro growth. Alternatively, if the JAK2 mutation is absent, the diagnosis requires meeting criteria 2a, 2b, and 2c, plus two additional minor criteria. However, in this case, the JAK2 V617F mutation is present. Therefore, the remaining criteria to confirm PV and exclude other diagnoses are crucial. Bone marrow morphology showing panmyelosis without significant fibrosis is a key distinguishing feature of PV from ET or early PMF. While serum erythropoietin levels and EECs are important, the bone marrow biopsy provides essential morphological evidence of the underlying clonal process and its specific pattern of proliferation. The presence of thrombocytosis and erythrocytosis are clinical findings that support the diagnosis but are not definitive on their own. Therefore, a bone marrow examination is the most critical next step to establish the diagnosis of PV by assessing the characteristic trilineage hyperplasia and the absence of significant reticulin fibrosis, which helps differentiate it from other MPNs.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a newly diagnosed Philadelphia chromosome-negative myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN), specifically polycythemia vera (PV), who is also experiencing recurrent venous thromboembolism (VTE). The JAK2 V617F mutation is a hallmark of PV and is present in approximately 95% of cases. While the presence of the JAK2 V617F mutation is highly suggestive of PV, it can also be found in other MPNs like essential thrombocythemia (ET) and primary myelofibrosis (PMF), albeit at lower frequencies. Therefore, a definitive diagnosis of PV requires meeting specific criteria, which include the presence of the JAK2 V617F mutation or a JAK2 exon 12 mutation, along with other clinical, laboratory, and histopathological findings. The patient’s clinical presentation of erythrocytosis (elevated hemoglobin), thrombocytosis (elevated platelet count), and recurrent VTE are consistent with PV. However, the question asks about the most critical diagnostic step to confirm the diagnosis of PV in this context, given the presence of the JAK2 V617F mutation. While the mutation is a key piece of evidence, it is not pathognomonic for PV alone. The World Health Organization (WHO) classification of myeloid neoplasms provides diagnostic criteria for PV. These criteria emphasize the presence of JAK2 V617F or JAK2 exon 12 mutation as a major criterion, but also require other findings to exclude other MPNs and non-clonal causes of erythrocytosis. Specifically, the WHO criteria for PV include: 1. JAK2 V617F mutation or JAK2 exon 12 mutation. 2. Presence of all three of the following: a. Bone marrow biopsy showing hypercellularity with trilineage hyperplasia (panmyelosis) without reticulin fibrosis. b. Serum erythropoietin level below the lower limit of normal. c. Presence of an endogenous erythroid colony (EEC) in vitro growth. Alternatively, if the JAK2 mutation is absent, the diagnosis requires meeting criteria 2a, 2b, and 2c, plus two additional minor criteria. However, in this case, the JAK2 V617F mutation is present. Therefore, the remaining criteria to confirm PV and exclude other diagnoses are crucial. Bone marrow morphology showing panmyelosis without significant fibrosis is a key distinguishing feature of PV from ET or early PMF. While serum erythropoietin levels and EECs are important, the bone marrow biopsy provides essential morphological evidence of the underlying clonal process and its specific pattern of proliferation. The presence of thrombocytosis and erythrocytosis are clinical findings that support the diagnosis but are not definitive on their own. Therefore, a bone marrow examination is the most critical next step to establish the diagnosis of PV by assessing the characteristic trilineage hyperplasia and the absence of significant reticulin fibrosis, which helps differentiate it from other MPNs.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
A 68-year-old individual presents to American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University with progressive fatigue and recurrent infections. Peripheral blood smear reveals mild anemia, leukopenia with dysplastic neutrophils, and a few circulating blasts. A bone marrow aspirate and biopsy show trilineage dysplasia, hypercellularity, and approximately \( 8\% \) blasts. Cytogenetic analysis of the bone marrow reveals \( \text{inv}(16)(\text{p13.1q22}) \). Considering the comprehensive diagnostic framework emphasized at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, which of the following classifications most accurately reflects this patient’s condition?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific genetic alterations and their impact on the diagnostic classification and therapeutic implications within the myeloid neoplasm spectrum, particularly concerning the American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology curriculum. The scenario describes a patient with features suggestive of a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) but with an unusual cytogenetic finding. The key to answering this question lies in recognizing that while certain mutations are common in MDS, the presence of a specific complex chromosomal rearrangement, such as a balanced translocation involving \( \text{chromosome } 16 \) leading to the \( \text{core-binding factor} \) (CBF) fusion gene, is a defining characteristic of a distinct entity within the myeloid neoplasms. Specifically, the \( \text{inv}(16)(\text{p13.1q22}) \) or \( \text{t}(16;16)(\text{p13.1;q22}) \) resulting in the \( \text{MYH11-CBFB} \) fusion gene is diagnostic of Acute Myeloid Leukemia with \( \text{t}(16;16)} \), which is a subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia with recurrent genetic abnormalities, not an MDS. This specific genetic abnormality confers a generally favorable prognosis and dictates specific therapeutic strategies, often involving anthracyclines and potentially allogeneic stem cell transplantation in certain high-risk scenarios. The presence of this translocation overrides an MDS classification, even if some morphological features might initially suggest it. Therefore, the most accurate classification, considering the definitive molecular finding, is Acute Myeloid Leukemia with \( \text{core-binding factor} \) rearrangement. The other options represent conditions that, while related to myeloid disorders, are not directly indicated by the described genetic abnormality. Myelodysplastic syndromes are characterized by ineffective hematopoiesis and cytopenias, often with different genetic drivers. Myeloproliferative neoplasms involve clonal proliferation of myeloid lineages, typically driven by mutations like \( \text{JAK2, CALR, or MPL} \). Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with eosinophilia and gene rearrangements, while involving eosinophilia, are defined by specific rearrangements of \( \text{PDGFRA, PDGFRB, FGFR1, or CSF1R} \), not the \( \text{CBFB} \) rearrangement. The American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology emphasizes the critical role of integrating morphological, immunophenotypic, cytogenetic, and molecular data for precise diagnosis and patient management, and this question tests that integration.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific genetic alterations and their impact on the diagnostic classification and therapeutic implications within the myeloid neoplasm spectrum, particularly concerning the American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology curriculum. The scenario describes a patient with features suggestive of a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) but with an unusual cytogenetic finding. The key to answering this question lies in recognizing that while certain mutations are common in MDS, the presence of a specific complex chromosomal rearrangement, such as a balanced translocation involving \( \text{chromosome } 16 \) leading to the \( \text{core-binding factor} \) (CBF) fusion gene, is a defining characteristic of a distinct entity within the myeloid neoplasms. Specifically, the \( \text{inv}(16)(\text{p13.1q22}) \) or \( \text{t}(16;16)(\text{p13.1;q22}) \) resulting in the \( \text{MYH11-CBFB} \) fusion gene is diagnostic of Acute Myeloid Leukemia with \( \text{t}(16;16)} \), which is a subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia with recurrent genetic abnormalities, not an MDS. This specific genetic abnormality confers a generally favorable prognosis and dictates specific therapeutic strategies, often involving anthracyclines and potentially allogeneic stem cell transplantation in certain high-risk scenarios. The presence of this translocation overrides an MDS classification, even if some morphological features might initially suggest it. Therefore, the most accurate classification, considering the definitive molecular finding, is Acute Myeloid Leukemia with \( \text{core-binding factor} \) rearrangement. The other options represent conditions that, while related to myeloid disorders, are not directly indicated by the described genetic abnormality. Myelodysplastic syndromes are characterized by ineffective hematopoiesis and cytopenias, often with different genetic drivers. Myeloproliferative neoplasms involve clonal proliferation of myeloid lineages, typically driven by mutations like \( \text{JAK2, CALR, or MPL} \). Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with eosinophilia and gene rearrangements, while involving eosinophilia, are defined by specific rearrangements of \( \text{PDGFRA, PDGFRB, FGFR1, or CSF1R} \), not the \( \text{CBFB} \) rearrangement. The American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology emphasizes the critical role of integrating morphological, immunophenotypic, cytogenetic, and molecular data for precise diagnosis and patient management, and this question tests that integration.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
A 7-year-old child presents with cervical lymphadenopathy and bone marrow infiltration. Flow cytometry analysis of the bone marrow aspirate reveals the following immunophenotype: CD19+, CD10+, cytoplasmic CD79a+, CD20 (dim), CD22+, CD3-, CD5-, CD7-, CD13-, CD33-. Considering the diagnostic criteria for precursor lymphoid neoplasms and the typical immunophenotypic profiles evaluated at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, which of the following classifications most accurately reflects these findings?
Correct
The core of this question lies in understanding the distinct immunophenotypic profiles of precursor lymphoid neoplasms, specifically distinguishing between B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma (B-LBL) and T-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma (T-LBL) using flow cytometry. B-LBL typically expresses CD19, CD20 (often weakly or absent in mature B-cells), CD22, CD79a, and cytoplasmic CD79b. Importantly, it is usually negative for T-cell lineage markers. T-LBL, conversely, is characterized by the expression of T-cell receptor (TCR) components, such as cytoplasmic CD3 or surface CD3, along with other T-cell markers like CD1a, CD2, CD5, and CD7. Aberrant expression of myeloid markers (e.g., CD13, CD33) or NK cell markers (e.g., CD56) can occur in both subtypes but are not definitive discriminators. The presence of CD10 is a common feature in a significant proportion of B-LBL, aiding in its identification. Given the scenario of a pediatric patient with lymphadenopathy and bone marrow involvement, and the flow cytometry results showing positivity for CD19, CD10, cytoplasmic CD79a, and importantly, negativity for all T-cell lineage markers including CD3, CD5, and CD7, the immunophenotype strongly supports a B-cell origin. Therefore, the most accurate classification based on these findings is B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma. The other options represent different lineages or subtypes of lymphoid neoplasms that are not supported by the provided immunophenotypic data. For instance, T-LBL would exhibit T-cell markers, while mature B-cell lymphomas would typically express surface immunoglobulin and a more mature B-cell panel. Myeloid neoplasms would show myeloid antigens. The specific combination of B-cell markers and absence of T-cell markers is crucial for this diagnosis.
Incorrect
The core of this question lies in understanding the distinct immunophenotypic profiles of precursor lymphoid neoplasms, specifically distinguishing between B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma (B-LBL) and T-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma (T-LBL) using flow cytometry. B-LBL typically expresses CD19, CD20 (often weakly or absent in mature B-cells), CD22, CD79a, and cytoplasmic CD79b. Importantly, it is usually negative for T-cell lineage markers. T-LBL, conversely, is characterized by the expression of T-cell receptor (TCR) components, such as cytoplasmic CD3 or surface CD3, along with other T-cell markers like CD1a, CD2, CD5, and CD7. Aberrant expression of myeloid markers (e.g., CD13, CD33) or NK cell markers (e.g., CD56) can occur in both subtypes but are not definitive discriminators. The presence of CD10 is a common feature in a significant proportion of B-LBL, aiding in its identification. Given the scenario of a pediatric patient with lymphadenopathy and bone marrow involvement, and the flow cytometry results showing positivity for CD19, CD10, cytoplasmic CD79a, and importantly, negativity for all T-cell lineage markers including CD3, CD5, and CD7, the immunophenotype strongly supports a B-cell origin. Therefore, the most accurate classification based on these findings is B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma. The other options represent different lineages or subtypes of lymphoid neoplasms that are not supported by the provided immunophenotypic data. For instance, T-LBL would exhibit T-cell markers, while mature B-cell lymphomas would typically express surface immunoglobulin and a more mature B-cell panel. Myeloid neoplasms would show myeloid antigens. The specific combination of B-cell markers and absence of T-cell markers is crucial for this diagnosis.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
A 68-year-old individual presents with marked thrombocytosis and splenomegaly. Bone marrow biopsy reveals hypercellularity with prominent megakaryopoiesis and minimal reticulin fibrosis. Peripheral blood smear shows normocytic red blood cells and a normal white blood cell count. Molecular testing is performed. Considering the diagnostic framework for myeloproliferative neoplasms as taught at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, which of the following statements most accurately characterizes the implications of the molecular findings in this context?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific molecular alterations and their diagnostic and prognostic implications in a particular myeloid neoplasm, focusing on the nuances relevant to advanced hematopathology training at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The core of the question lies in identifying the most accurate statement regarding the significance of *JAK2* V617F mutation, *CALR* mutations, and *MPL* mutations in the context of myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPNs). In myeloproliferative neoplasms, the presence of *JAK2* V617F, *CALR* mutations, or *MPL* mutations are considered mutually exclusive driver mutations in the majority of cases. Specifically, *JAK2* V617F is found in approximately 95% of polycythemia vera (PV) and about 50-60% of essential thrombocythemia (ET) and primary myelofibrosis (PMF). *CALR* mutations are predominantly found in ET and PMF, occurring in about 20-25% of ET and 30-40% of PMF cases, and are typically mutually exclusive with *JAK2* V617F. *MPL* mutations are less common, found in about 5-10% of ET and PMF cases, and are also generally mutually exclusive with the other two drivers. The statement that accurately reflects the current understanding and diagnostic criteria is that the absence of *JAK2* V617F, *CALR*, and *MPL* mutations in a patient with clinical and morphological features suggestive of an MPN defines the “triple-negative” category, which is often associated with a higher risk of progression to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukemia, and may harbor alternative driver mutations or be classified as unclassifiable MPN. Therefore, identifying a patient as “triple-negative” for these specific mutations is a critical diagnostic step that guides further investigation and risk stratification, aligning with the rigorous diagnostic standards emphasized at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The other options present incorrect associations or misinterpretations of the mutual exclusivity and prognostic significance of these mutations.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific molecular alterations and their diagnostic and prognostic implications in a particular myeloid neoplasm, focusing on the nuances relevant to advanced hematopathology training at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The core of the question lies in identifying the most accurate statement regarding the significance of *JAK2* V617F mutation, *CALR* mutations, and *MPL* mutations in the context of myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPNs). In myeloproliferative neoplasms, the presence of *JAK2* V617F, *CALR* mutations, or *MPL* mutations are considered mutually exclusive driver mutations in the majority of cases. Specifically, *JAK2* V617F is found in approximately 95% of polycythemia vera (PV) and about 50-60% of essential thrombocythemia (ET) and primary myelofibrosis (PMF). *CALR* mutations are predominantly found in ET and PMF, occurring in about 20-25% of ET and 30-40% of PMF cases, and are typically mutually exclusive with *JAK2* V617F. *MPL* mutations are less common, found in about 5-10% of ET and PMF cases, and are also generally mutually exclusive with the other two drivers. The statement that accurately reflects the current understanding and diagnostic criteria is that the absence of *JAK2* V617F, *CALR*, and *MPL* mutations in a patient with clinical and morphological features suggestive of an MPN defines the “triple-negative” category, which is often associated with a higher risk of progression to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukemia, and may harbor alternative driver mutations or be classified as unclassifiable MPN. Therefore, identifying a patient as “triple-negative” for these specific mutations is a critical diagnostic step that guides further investigation and risk stratification, aligning with the rigorous diagnostic standards emphasized at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The other options present incorrect associations or misinterpretations of the mutual exclusivity and prognostic significance of these mutations.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
A 68-year-old male presents to American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University with progressive fatigue, significant splenomegaly, and thrombocytosis. Bone marrow biopsy reveals hypercellularity with prominent megakaryocytic hyperplasia and some atypical megakaryocytes, along with reticulin fibrosis grade 2. Peripheral blood smear shows marked thrombocytosis, leukoerythroblastosis, and a mild increase in circulating myeloid precursors. Flow cytometry on the bone marrow aspirate demonstrates myeloid lineage markers (CD13, CD33, CD117) and aberrant expression of CD56 on approximately 35% of the myeloid population, including both immature and maturing myeloid cells. Which of the following classifications best represents the most likely underlying hematologic neoplasm given this comprehensive profile?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the diagnostic utility of specific immunophenotypic markers in distinguishing between distinct myeloid neoplasms, particularly focusing on the nuances of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) and myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN) with overlapping features. The core concept revolves around the aberrant expression of CD56, a marker typically associated with NK cells and some T-cells, but whose presence in myeloid precursors can indicate specific pathological processes. In the context of myeloid neoplasms, aberrant CD56 expression on myeloid blasts is a recognized feature, particularly in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) with myelodysplasia-related changes or certain subtypes of AML. However, its consistent and widespread expression across a significant proportion of myeloid cells in the absence of overt blast crisis, coupled with other characteristic features like thrombocytosis and splenomegaly, points towards a specific MPN. Myelofibrosis (MF), a primary MPN, is often characterized by JAK2 mutations and can present with varying degrees of dysplasia and cytopenias or cytoses. While CD56 can be seen in AML, its consistent presence on a broad range of myeloid cells, including maturing granulocytes and monocytes, in a patient with constitutional symptoms, splenomegaly, and thrombocytosis, is more indicative of a myeloproliferative neoplasm with aberrant antigen expression. Specifically, the presence of CD56 in this context, alongside other myeloid markers, is a known, albeit less common, feature that can be observed in some MPNs, including primary myelofibrosis, and can sometimes be confused with AML. Therefore, understanding that aberrant CD56 expression can occur in MPNs, and in the described clinical and morphologic scenario, it is more likely to be associated with a myeloproliferative neoplasm rather than a primary myelodysplastic syndrome or a distinct entity solely defined by CD56 expression without other clear myeloid neoplastic features. The explanation emphasizes that while CD56 can be seen in AML, its pattern of expression in the described scenario, coupled with the overall clinical picture of thrombocytosis and splenomegaly, strongly favors a myeloproliferative neoplasm. The distinction is critical for accurate diagnosis and subsequent management strategies at institutions like American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, where precise classification of myeloid neoplasms is paramount. The focus is on the *pattern* and *context* of CD56 expression within the broader immunophenotypic landscape of myeloid disorders.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the diagnostic utility of specific immunophenotypic markers in distinguishing between distinct myeloid neoplasms, particularly focusing on the nuances of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) and myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN) with overlapping features. The core concept revolves around the aberrant expression of CD56, a marker typically associated with NK cells and some T-cells, but whose presence in myeloid precursors can indicate specific pathological processes. In the context of myeloid neoplasms, aberrant CD56 expression on myeloid blasts is a recognized feature, particularly in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) with myelodysplasia-related changes or certain subtypes of AML. However, its consistent and widespread expression across a significant proportion of myeloid cells in the absence of overt blast crisis, coupled with other characteristic features like thrombocytosis and splenomegaly, points towards a specific MPN. Myelofibrosis (MF), a primary MPN, is often characterized by JAK2 mutations and can present with varying degrees of dysplasia and cytopenias or cytoses. While CD56 can be seen in AML, its consistent presence on a broad range of myeloid cells, including maturing granulocytes and monocytes, in a patient with constitutional symptoms, splenomegaly, and thrombocytosis, is more indicative of a myeloproliferative neoplasm with aberrant antigen expression. Specifically, the presence of CD56 in this context, alongside other myeloid markers, is a known, albeit less common, feature that can be observed in some MPNs, including primary myelofibrosis, and can sometimes be confused with AML. Therefore, understanding that aberrant CD56 expression can occur in MPNs, and in the described clinical and morphologic scenario, it is more likely to be associated with a myeloproliferative neoplasm rather than a primary myelodysplastic syndrome or a distinct entity solely defined by CD56 expression without other clear myeloid neoplastic features. The explanation emphasizes that while CD56 can be seen in AML, its pattern of expression in the described scenario, coupled with the overall clinical picture of thrombocytosis and splenomegaly, strongly favors a myeloproliferative neoplasm. The distinction is critical for accurate diagnosis and subsequent management strategies at institutions like American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, where precise classification of myeloid neoplasms is paramount. The focus is on the *pattern* and *context* of CD56 expression within the broader immunophenotypic landscape of myeloid disorders.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
A 68-year-old individual presents for routine evaluation at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. Peripheral blood counts reveal a hemoglobin of 13.5 g/dL, white blood cell count of 7.2 x \(10^9\)/L, and platelet count of 280 x \(10^9\)/L. Bone marrow aspirate shows normocellularity with minimal blasts (2%) and some subtle megaloblastoid changes in erythroid precursors. Cytogenetic analysis is normal. However, molecular testing reveals the presence of the *JAK2* V617F mutation. Considering the evolving landscape of myeloid neoplasm classification and the emphasis on integrated diagnostics at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, what is the most appropriate initial diagnostic consideration for this patient?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific molecular alterations and their impact on the diagnostic classification and therapeutic implications within the myeloid neoplasm spectrum, particularly concerning the American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology curriculum. The scenario describes a patient with features suggestive of a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) but with a complex genetic profile. The presence of a *JAK2* V617F mutation, coupled with a normal or near-normal peripheral blood count and no overt splenomegaly, points away from a classical myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN) like polycythemia vera or essential thrombocythemia, where *JAK2* mutations are typically central. While *JAK2* mutations can be seen in some MDS/MPN overlap syndromes, the specific combination of a low blast count, absence of significant cytopenias, and the presence of a *JAK2* mutation without other hallmark MPN features (like marked thrombocytosis or erythrocytosis) necessitates careful consideration of the WHO classification. The WHO classification of myeloid neoplasms emphasizes the integration of morphology, immunophenotype, cytogenetics, and molecular genetics. In this context, a *JAK2* mutation in the absence of other defining MPN criteria, but with some dysplastic features, can fall into the category of MDS with associated genetic abnormalities, particularly if the mutation is considered a primary driver of a clonal hematopoietic process that doesn’t meet full MPN criteria. However, the question specifically asks about the *most appropriate* initial diagnostic consideration given the provided information. The presence of a *JAK2* mutation, even in the absence of overt MPN features, strongly suggests a clonal hematopoietic disorder. The WHO classification for myeloid neoplasms has evolved to incorporate molecular findings more prominently. When *JAK2* V617F is present, and the patient has some dysplastic changes but does not meet criteria for a specific MPN, the diagnosis of MDS with a specific genetic abnormality, or an overlap syndrome, becomes highly relevant. However, considering the direct implication of the *JAK2* mutation in driving a neoplastic process, and its association with a spectrum of myeloid disorders, the most encompassing and accurate initial diagnostic consideration that directly addresses the molecular finding and its potential implications for classification within the broader myeloid neoplasm framework is a myeloproliferative neoplasm with an associated *JAK2* mutation, even if it doesn’t fit a classical MPN subtype perfectly. This reflects the understanding that *JAK2* mutations are fundamentally drivers of MPN pathogenesis, and their presence necessitates consideration within that diagnostic umbrella, potentially leading to further subclassification or recognition of overlap syndromes. The other options are less precise. “Myelodysplastic syndrome without specific genetic abnormalities” is incorrect because a significant genetic abnormality (*JAK2* V617F) is present. “Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia” is a specific subtype of MDS/MPN overlap, but the provided information doesn’t definitively point to the characteristic monocytosis required for this diagnosis. “Aplastic anemia” is a diagnosis of exclusion characterized by bone marrow hypocellularity and pancytopenia, which is not described here. Therefore, the most accurate initial consideration that captures the essence of the molecular finding and its place in the myeloid neoplasm classification system, as taught in advanced hematopathology programs at institutions like American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, is a myeloproliferative neoplasm with an associated *JAK2* mutation.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific molecular alterations and their impact on the diagnostic classification and therapeutic implications within the myeloid neoplasm spectrum, particularly concerning the American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology curriculum. The scenario describes a patient with features suggestive of a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) but with a complex genetic profile. The presence of a *JAK2* V617F mutation, coupled with a normal or near-normal peripheral blood count and no overt splenomegaly, points away from a classical myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN) like polycythemia vera or essential thrombocythemia, where *JAK2* mutations are typically central. While *JAK2* mutations can be seen in some MDS/MPN overlap syndromes, the specific combination of a low blast count, absence of significant cytopenias, and the presence of a *JAK2* mutation without other hallmark MPN features (like marked thrombocytosis or erythrocytosis) necessitates careful consideration of the WHO classification. The WHO classification of myeloid neoplasms emphasizes the integration of morphology, immunophenotype, cytogenetics, and molecular genetics. In this context, a *JAK2* mutation in the absence of other defining MPN criteria, but with some dysplastic features, can fall into the category of MDS with associated genetic abnormalities, particularly if the mutation is considered a primary driver of a clonal hematopoietic process that doesn’t meet full MPN criteria. However, the question specifically asks about the *most appropriate* initial diagnostic consideration given the provided information. The presence of a *JAK2* mutation, even in the absence of overt MPN features, strongly suggests a clonal hematopoietic disorder. The WHO classification for myeloid neoplasms has evolved to incorporate molecular findings more prominently. When *JAK2* V617F is present, and the patient has some dysplastic changes but does not meet criteria for a specific MPN, the diagnosis of MDS with a specific genetic abnormality, or an overlap syndrome, becomes highly relevant. However, considering the direct implication of the *JAK2* mutation in driving a neoplastic process, and its association with a spectrum of myeloid disorders, the most encompassing and accurate initial diagnostic consideration that directly addresses the molecular finding and its potential implications for classification within the broader myeloid neoplasm framework is a myeloproliferative neoplasm with an associated *JAK2* mutation, even if it doesn’t fit a classical MPN subtype perfectly. This reflects the understanding that *JAK2* mutations are fundamentally drivers of MPN pathogenesis, and their presence necessitates consideration within that diagnostic umbrella, potentially leading to further subclassification or recognition of overlap syndromes. The other options are less precise. “Myelodysplastic syndrome without specific genetic abnormalities” is incorrect because a significant genetic abnormality (*JAK2* V617F) is present. “Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia” is a specific subtype of MDS/MPN overlap, but the provided information doesn’t definitively point to the characteristic monocytosis required for this diagnosis. “Aplastic anemia” is a diagnosis of exclusion characterized by bone marrow hypocellularity and pancytopenia, which is not described here. Therefore, the most accurate initial consideration that captures the essence of the molecular finding and its place in the myeloid neoplasm classification system, as taught in advanced hematopathology programs at institutions like American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, is a myeloproliferative neoplasm with an associated *JAK2* mutation.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
A 65-year-old individual presents with fatigue and an elevated white blood cell count. Bone marrow biopsy and aspirate reveal a hypercellular marrow with significant myeloid hyperplasia. Cytogenetic analysis identifies the Philadelphia chromosome, and molecular studies confirm a *BCR-ABL1* fusion transcript. Additionally, sequencing reveals a *JAK2* V617F mutation and an *IDH1* R132C mutation. Considering the American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University’s emphasis on precision medicine, which molecular finding most strongly dictates the initial therapeutic approach for this patient?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific molecular alterations and their implications for therapeutic targeting in a particular myeloid neoplasm. The scenario describes a patient with a newly diagnosed myeloid malignancy exhibiting a complex genetic profile. The key to answering this question lies in recognizing that the presence of a *BCR-ABL1* fusion transcript, a hallmark of Philadelphia chromosome-positive leukemias, is a direct indication for tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) therapy. While other mutations like *JAK2* V617F are significant in myeloproliferative neoplasms and *FLT3*-ITD mutations are important prognostic markers in AML, they do not, in isolation, represent a primary target for the same class of highly effective, targeted agents as *BCR-ABL1*. Similarly, *IDH1/2* mutations are targets for specific inhibitors, but the *BCR-ABL1* fusion is the most compelling driver for immediate TKI intervention in this context, especially given its potent oncogenic activity and the availability of highly effective treatments. Therefore, the presence of the *BCR-ABL1* fusion transcript dictates the initial therapeutic strategy, prioritizing a TKI.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific molecular alterations and their implications for therapeutic targeting in a particular myeloid neoplasm. The scenario describes a patient with a newly diagnosed myeloid malignancy exhibiting a complex genetic profile. The key to answering this question lies in recognizing that the presence of a *BCR-ABL1* fusion transcript, a hallmark of Philadelphia chromosome-positive leukemias, is a direct indication for tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) therapy. While other mutations like *JAK2* V617F are significant in myeloproliferative neoplasms and *FLT3*-ITD mutations are important prognostic markers in AML, they do not, in isolation, represent a primary target for the same class of highly effective, targeted agents as *BCR-ABL1*. Similarly, *IDH1/2* mutations are targets for specific inhibitors, but the *BCR-ABL1* fusion is the most compelling driver for immediate TKI intervention in this context, especially given its potent oncogenic activity and the availability of highly effective treatments. Therefore, the presence of the *BCR-ABL1* fusion transcript dictates the initial therapeutic strategy, prioritizing a TKI.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
A 68-year-old male presents to American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University with a two-month history of fatigue, easy bruising, and an enlarged spleen. Peripheral blood smear reveals 45% myeloid blasts. Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy show hypercellularity with significant myeloid proliferation and dysplastic features in all myeloid lineages. Flow cytometry on bone marrow aspirate demonstrates myeloid blasts positive for CD13, CD33, and MPO, with negative staining for lymphoid markers. Cytogenetic analysis identifies the presence of the *BCR-ABL1* fusion gene. Considering the integrated diagnostic approach emphasized at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, which specific myeloid neoplasm classification best encapsulates this patient’s presentation?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific genetic alterations and their impact on cellular differentiation and proliferation in the context of myeloid neoplasms, a core area of hematopathology. The scenario describes a patient with a newly diagnosed myeloid neoplasm exhibiting a characteristic cytogenetic abnormality and a specific immunophenotypic profile. The key to answering this question lies in recognizing that the presence of a *BCR-ABL1* fusion gene, typically associated with Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML), in a patient presenting with features suggestive of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML), specifically myeloid blasts with aberrant CD13 and CD33 expression and a lack of lymphoid markers, points towards a complex diagnostic entity. While *BCR-ABL1* is the hallmark of CML, its occurrence in the context of significant myeloid blast proliferation, especially with the described immunophenotype, aligns with the diagnostic criteria for Philadelphia chromosome-positive acute myeloid leukemia (Ph+ AML). This subtype of AML is characterized by the presence of the *BCR-ABL1* fusion gene and a high percentage of myeloid blasts in the bone marrow or peripheral blood. The explanation for why this is the correct answer involves understanding that the Philadelphia chromosome, and thus the *BCR-ABL1* fusion, can drive a more aggressive, acute leukemic transformation in the myeloid lineage, distinct from the chronic phase of CML. The immunophenotype described, with myeloid markers and absence of lymphoid markers, further supports a myeloid rather than lymphoid process. The other options represent different diagnostic categories or genetic associations within hematopathology. For instance, *JAK2* V617F mutations are characteristic of myeloproliferative neoplasms like polycythemia vera or essential thrombocythemia, which typically present with different clinical and morphological features. *CALR* mutations are also associated with essential thrombocythemia and primary myelofibrosis, again with distinct presentations. Finally, a *NOTCH1* mutation is more commonly implicated in T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia, not myeloid neoplasms. Therefore, the combination of the *BCR-ABL1* fusion and the myeloid blast morphology and immunophenotype definitively points to Ph+ AML.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific genetic alterations and their impact on cellular differentiation and proliferation in the context of myeloid neoplasms, a core area of hematopathology. The scenario describes a patient with a newly diagnosed myeloid neoplasm exhibiting a characteristic cytogenetic abnormality and a specific immunophenotypic profile. The key to answering this question lies in recognizing that the presence of a *BCR-ABL1* fusion gene, typically associated with Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML), in a patient presenting with features suggestive of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML), specifically myeloid blasts with aberrant CD13 and CD33 expression and a lack of lymphoid markers, points towards a complex diagnostic entity. While *BCR-ABL1* is the hallmark of CML, its occurrence in the context of significant myeloid blast proliferation, especially with the described immunophenotype, aligns with the diagnostic criteria for Philadelphia chromosome-positive acute myeloid leukemia (Ph+ AML). This subtype of AML is characterized by the presence of the *BCR-ABL1* fusion gene and a high percentage of myeloid blasts in the bone marrow or peripheral blood. The explanation for why this is the correct answer involves understanding that the Philadelphia chromosome, and thus the *BCR-ABL1* fusion, can drive a more aggressive, acute leukemic transformation in the myeloid lineage, distinct from the chronic phase of CML. The immunophenotype described, with myeloid markers and absence of lymphoid markers, further supports a myeloid rather than lymphoid process. The other options represent different diagnostic categories or genetic associations within hematopathology. For instance, *JAK2* V617F mutations are characteristic of myeloproliferative neoplasms like polycythemia vera or essential thrombocythemia, which typically present with different clinical and morphological features. *CALR* mutations are also associated with essential thrombocythemia and primary myelofibrosis, again with distinct presentations. Finally, a *NOTCH1* mutation is more commonly implicated in T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia, not myeloid neoplasms. Therefore, the combination of the *BCR-ABL1* fusion and the myeloid blast morphology and immunophenotype definitively points to Ph+ AML.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
A 72-year-old male presents with persistent pancytopenia and dysplastic changes in his peripheral blood smear. A bone marrow aspirate and biopsy are performed, revealing 8% blasts and significant trilineage dysplasia. Cytogenetic analysis of the bone marrow aspirate demonstrates the following abnormalities: del(5q), -7, and t(3;21)(q26;q22). Considering the current diagnostic and prognostic frameworks utilized in hematopathology, how would this specific cytogenetic profile most accurately be characterized in terms of its impact on the patient’s risk stratification?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a suspected myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who has undergone a bone marrow biopsy and aspirate. The question probes the understanding of how specific cytogenetic abnormalities impact the classification and prognosis within the MDS framework, particularly concerning the World Health Organization (WHO) classification and the International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS-R). The presence of a complex karyotype involving multiple chromosomal abnormalities, such as deletions and translocations, is a significant indicator of a higher-risk MDS subtype. Specifically, the IPSS-R categorizes patients based on cytogenetic risk, the percentage of bone marrow blasts, and the severity of cytopenias. A complex karyotype, defined as three or more unrelated chromosomal abnormalities, is consistently associated with a poorer prognosis and often places a patient in the “very high” risk category of the IPSS-R. This designation has direct implications for treatment strategies and expected outcomes. Therefore, identifying the cytogenetic abnormality as complex and understanding its prognostic weight is crucial for accurate patient management and aligns with the rigorous diagnostic standards expected at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The explanation focuses on the direct correlation between the complexity of the karyotype and the resulting risk stratification, emphasizing the prognostic implications rather than specific numerical calculations.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a suspected myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who has undergone a bone marrow biopsy and aspirate. The question probes the understanding of how specific cytogenetic abnormalities impact the classification and prognosis within the MDS framework, particularly concerning the World Health Organization (WHO) classification and the International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS-R). The presence of a complex karyotype involving multiple chromosomal abnormalities, such as deletions and translocations, is a significant indicator of a higher-risk MDS subtype. Specifically, the IPSS-R categorizes patients based on cytogenetic risk, the percentage of bone marrow blasts, and the severity of cytopenias. A complex karyotype, defined as three or more unrelated chromosomal abnormalities, is consistently associated with a poorer prognosis and often places a patient in the “very high” risk category of the IPSS-R. This designation has direct implications for treatment strategies and expected outcomes. Therefore, identifying the cytogenetic abnormality as complex and understanding its prognostic weight is crucial for accurate patient management and aligns with the rigorous diagnostic standards expected at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The explanation focuses on the direct correlation between the complexity of the karyotype and the resulting risk stratification, emphasizing the prognostic implications rather than specific numerical calculations.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
A 65-year-old individual presents with marked thrombocytosis and splenomegaly. Peripheral blood smear reveals a hypercellular bone marrow with prominent megakaryocytic hyperplasia. Molecular studies detect a *JAK2* V617F mutation and, unexpectedly, a *BCR-ABL1* fusion transcript. Considering the diagnostic frameworks established by the American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University for classifying myeloid neoplasms, which of the following diagnoses most accurately reflects this constellation of findings?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific molecular alterations and their impact on the diagnostic classification and therapeutic implications of myeloid neoplasms, particularly in the context of the World Health Organization (WHO) classification system. The scenario describes a patient with features suggestive of a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or a myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN), but with a critical finding: a concurrent *JAK2* V617F mutation and a *BCR-ABL1* fusion transcript. The *JAK2* V617F mutation is a hallmark of Philadelphia chromosome-negative MPNs, such as polycythemia vera, essential thrombocythemia, and primary myelofibrosis. The *BCR-ABL1* fusion transcript, on the other hand, is the defining molecular abnormality of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a Philadelphia chromosome-positive MPN. The presence of both these distinct and mutually exclusive molecular drivers in a single patient presents a diagnostic challenge. According to the current WHO classification of myeloid neoplasms, the presence of a *BCR-ABL1* fusion transcript unequivocally classifies the disorder as CML, irrespective of other co-occurring mutations. This is because CML is defined by this specific genetic abnormality and represents a distinct disease entity with a characteristic clinical course and therapeutic approach (tyrosine kinase inhibitors). While *JAK2* mutations are common in other MPNs, their presence alongside *BCR-ABL1* does not alter the primary diagnosis of CML. Instead, it might suggest a more complex clonal architecture or potentially influence the disease’s behavior or response to therapy, but the fundamental classification remains CML. Therefore, the most accurate diagnostic categorization, based on the provided molecular findings and established classification criteria, is Chronic Myeloid Leukemia.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific molecular alterations and their impact on the diagnostic classification and therapeutic implications of myeloid neoplasms, particularly in the context of the World Health Organization (WHO) classification system. The scenario describes a patient with features suggestive of a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or a myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN), but with a critical finding: a concurrent *JAK2* V617F mutation and a *BCR-ABL1* fusion transcript. The *JAK2* V617F mutation is a hallmark of Philadelphia chromosome-negative MPNs, such as polycythemia vera, essential thrombocythemia, and primary myelofibrosis. The *BCR-ABL1* fusion transcript, on the other hand, is the defining molecular abnormality of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a Philadelphia chromosome-positive MPN. The presence of both these distinct and mutually exclusive molecular drivers in a single patient presents a diagnostic challenge. According to the current WHO classification of myeloid neoplasms, the presence of a *BCR-ABL1* fusion transcript unequivocally classifies the disorder as CML, irrespective of other co-occurring mutations. This is because CML is defined by this specific genetic abnormality and represents a distinct disease entity with a characteristic clinical course and therapeutic approach (tyrosine kinase inhibitors). While *JAK2* mutations are common in other MPNs, their presence alongside *BCR-ABL1* does not alter the primary diagnosis of CML. Instead, it might suggest a more complex clonal architecture or potentially influence the disease’s behavior or response to therapy, but the fundamental classification remains CML. Therefore, the most accurate diagnostic categorization, based on the provided molecular findings and established classification criteria, is Chronic Myeloid Leukemia.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
A patient presents with thrombocytosis, leukocytosis, and splenomegaly. Bone marrow biopsy reveals hypercellularity with prominent megakaryopoiesis. Molecular testing identifies a *JAK2* V617F mutation. Considering the foundational principles of hematopoiesis and molecular pathology as taught at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, which of the following cellular processes is most directly and significantly amplified by this specific molecular alteration, contributing to the observed clinical phenotype?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific genetic mutations and their impact on cellular signaling pathways in the context of myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPNs), a core area of hematopathology. Specifically, it focuses on the JAK-STAT pathway and its dysregulation. The JAK-STAT pathway is a critical intracellular signaling cascade that regulates cell growth, differentiation, and survival. Mutations in key components of this pathway, such as *JAK2*, *CALR*, and *MPL*, are frequently observed in MPNs. The *JAK2* V617F mutation, a common driver mutation, leads to constitutive activation of the JAK-STAT pathway, promoting uncontrolled proliferation of hematopoietic cells. Similarly, mutations in *CALR* and *MPL* also result in aberrant JAK-STAT signaling. Understanding the downstream effects of these mutations, such as increased cytokine sensitivity and enhanced cell proliferation, is crucial for diagnosing and managing these disorders. The question requires an applicant to connect a specific molecular abnormality to its functional consequence on hematopoietic cell behavior, demonstrating a deep understanding of the molecular pathogenesis of MPNs. The correct answer reflects the direct consequence of these mutations on the JAK-STAT pathway, leading to increased signaling and subsequent cellular effects.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific genetic mutations and their impact on cellular signaling pathways in the context of myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPNs), a core area of hematopathology. Specifically, it focuses on the JAK-STAT pathway and its dysregulation. The JAK-STAT pathway is a critical intracellular signaling cascade that regulates cell growth, differentiation, and survival. Mutations in key components of this pathway, such as *JAK2*, *CALR*, and *MPL*, are frequently observed in MPNs. The *JAK2* V617F mutation, a common driver mutation, leads to constitutive activation of the JAK-STAT pathway, promoting uncontrolled proliferation of hematopoietic cells. Similarly, mutations in *CALR* and *MPL* also result in aberrant JAK-STAT signaling. Understanding the downstream effects of these mutations, such as increased cytokine sensitivity and enhanced cell proliferation, is crucial for diagnosing and managing these disorders. The question requires an applicant to connect a specific molecular abnormality to its functional consequence on hematopoietic cell behavior, demonstrating a deep understanding of the molecular pathogenesis of MPNs. The correct answer reflects the direct consequence of these mutations on the JAK-STAT pathway, leading to increased signaling and subsequent cellular effects.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
A 72-year-old male presents with new-onset anemia and thrombocytosis. A bone marrow biopsy reveals megaloblastoid erythroid precursors and a significant proportion of ring sideroblasts. Peripheral blood smear shows macrocytosis and occasional teardrop cells. Genetic analysis of the bone marrow aspirate identifies a heterozygous mutation in the *SF3B1* gene. Considering the established molecular pathogenesis of myelodysplastic syndromes, which of the following best explains the observed morphological findings in this patient, as would be evaluated in a hematopathology fellowship at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between genetic alterations and cellular differentiation in the context of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS). Specifically, it focuses on the implications of mutations in splicing factor genes, such as *SF3B1*, for the development of ring sideroblasts and the overall pathogenesis of MDS. *SF3B1* mutations are a hallmark of MDS with ring sideroblasts and thrombocytosis (MDS-RS-T), and they lead to aberrant RNA splicing. This aberrant splicing can affect the expression and function of numerous genes, including those involved in heme synthesis and mitochondrial function, which are critical for erythropoiesis. The accumulation of iron in the mitochondria, leading to ring sideroblasts, is a direct consequence of these splicing defects. Furthermore, the dysregulation of hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) function and differentiation pathways, driven by these splicing factor mutations, contributes to the characteristic ineffective hematopoiesis and cytopenias seen in MDS. The specific impact on erythroid precursors, leading to megaloblastoid changes and ring sideroblasts, is a key morphological feature directly linked to the molecular defect. Therefore, understanding how these genetic lesions disrupt the normal molecular machinery of hematopoiesis is crucial for comprehending the pathogenesis of MDS. The correct answer reflects this direct link between the molecular defect and the observed cellular and morphological abnormalities.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between genetic alterations and cellular differentiation in the context of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS). Specifically, it focuses on the implications of mutations in splicing factor genes, such as *SF3B1*, for the development of ring sideroblasts and the overall pathogenesis of MDS. *SF3B1* mutations are a hallmark of MDS with ring sideroblasts and thrombocytosis (MDS-RS-T), and they lead to aberrant RNA splicing. This aberrant splicing can affect the expression and function of numerous genes, including those involved in heme synthesis and mitochondrial function, which are critical for erythropoiesis. The accumulation of iron in the mitochondria, leading to ring sideroblasts, is a direct consequence of these splicing defects. Furthermore, the dysregulation of hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) function and differentiation pathways, driven by these splicing factor mutations, contributes to the characteristic ineffective hematopoiesis and cytopenias seen in MDS. The specific impact on erythroid precursors, leading to megaloblastoid changes and ring sideroblasts, is a key morphological feature directly linked to the molecular defect. Therefore, understanding how these genetic lesions disrupt the normal molecular machinery of hematopoiesis is crucial for comprehending the pathogenesis of MDS. The correct answer reflects this direct link between the molecular defect and the observed cellular and morphological abnormalities.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
A patient presents with lymphadenopathy and mild splenomegaly. Peripheral blood flow cytometry reveals a monomorphic B-cell population with the following aberrant immunophenotypic profile: CD19 positive, CD20 positive, CD5 positive, CD23 negative, and CD43 positive. Considering the nuanced diagnostic criteria emphasized in hematopathology training at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, what is the most precise interpretation of this immunophenotype in the context of a B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the diagnostic implications of specific immunophenotypic findings in a case of suspected B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder. The provided immunophenotypic profile includes CD19+, CD20+, CD5+, CD23-, and importantly, the aberrant expression of CD43. In the context of B-cell neoplasms, the co-expression of CD5 and CD43 is a critical discriminator. While CD5 is typically seen in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and mantle cell lymphoma (MCL), the absence of CD23 strongly argues against a typical CLL. The presence of CD43, which is generally absent on normal mature B-cells and most B-cell lymphomas, is a key aberrant marker. Its co-expression with CD5 and CD19/CD20, in the absence of CD23, points towards a distinct entity. Considering the differential diagnoses, the combination of CD5 positivity, CD23 negativity, and CD43 positivity in a B-cell neoplasm is highly characteristic of a specific type of lymphoproliferative disorder. This particular immunophenotype is a hallmark of certain B-cell chronic lymphoproliferative disorders that are distinct from typical CLL. The absence of CD23, coupled with the presence of CD43, differentiates it from the more common CD5+/CD23+ CLL. Therefore, the most accurate interpretation of this immunophenotype, within the scope of hematopathology as taught at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, is a B-cell chronic lymphoproliferative disorder with an aberrant immunophenotype, specifically one that deviates from typical CLL due to the CD23 negativity and CD43 positivity. This aberrant expression profile necessitates careful consideration of alternative diagnostic categories within the B-cell lymphoproliferative spectrum, emphasizing the importance of precise immunophenotypic analysis for accurate classification and subsequent patient management.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the diagnostic implications of specific immunophenotypic findings in a case of suspected B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder. The provided immunophenotypic profile includes CD19+, CD20+, CD5+, CD23-, and importantly, the aberrant expression of CD43. In the context of B-cell neoplasms, the co-expression of CD5 and CD43 is a critical discriminator. While CD5 is typically seen in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and mantle cell lymphoma (MCL), the absence of CD23 strongly argues against a typical CLL. The presence of CD43, which is generally absent on normal mature B-cells and most B-cell lymphomas, is a key aberrant marker. Its co-expression with CD5 and CD19/CD20, in the absence of CD23, points towards a distinct entity. Considering the differential diagnoses, the combination of CD5 positivity, CD23 negativity, and CD43 positivity in a B-cell neoplasm is highly characteristic of a specific type of lymphoproliferative disorder. This particular immunophenotype is a hallmark of certain B-cell chronic lymphoproliferative disorders that are distinct from typical CLL. The absence of CD23, coupled with the presence of CD43, differentiates it from the more common CD5+/CD23+ CLL. Therefore, the most accurate interpretation of this immunophenotype, within the scope of hematopathology as taught at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, is a B-cell chronic lymphoproliferative disorder with an aberrant immunophenotype, specifically one that deviates from typical CLL due to the CD23 negativity and CD43 positivity. This aberrant expression profile necessitates careful consideration of alternative diagnostic categories within the B-cell lymphoproliferative spectrum, emphasizing the importance of precise immunophenotypic analysis for accurate classification and subsequent patient management.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
A 68-year-old male presents with pancytopenia and 15% blasts in the peripheral blood. Bone marrow aspirate reveals 22% myeloblasts with dysplastic changes in erythroid and myeloid precursors. Flow cytometry analysis of the bone marrow aspirate shows the following immunophenotype on the blast population: CD13+, CD33+, CD34+, CD117+, and HLA-DR+. Which of the following additional immunophenotypic findings would most strongly suggest a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia rather than a myelodysplastic syndrome with excess blasts, according to the diagnostic paradigms emphasized in hematopathology training at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the diagnostic utility of specific immunophenotypic markers in differentiating between certain myeloid neoplasms, particularly focusing on the nuances relevant to advanced hematopathology training at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The scenario describes a patient with a suspected myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) with excess blasts, where distinguishing between MDS and acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is critical for prognosis and treatment. In this context, the aberrant expression of CD56 (also known as NCAM) on myeloid blasts is a well-established finding that is more frequently observed in AML, particularly certain subtypes like acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) and AML with myelodysplasia-related changes, and can also be seen in some myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPNs). While CD56 can be expressed in normal myeloid precursors, its consistent and strong expression on a significant proportion of blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow aspirate is considered an abnormal finding. Conversely, CD10, a marker typically associated with B-cell lymphoid precursors and germinal center B-cells, is not a characteristic marker of myeloid neoplasms. Its presence in a myeloid neoplasm would be highly unusual and might suggest a mixed phenotype leukemia or a diagnostic artifact. CD20 is another marker primarily found on B-lymphocytes, and its expression on myeloid blasts is rare and indicative of a B-lymphoid lineage involvement or a rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia. CD117 (c-Kit) is a transmembrane tyrosine kinase receptor that is commonly expressed on hematopoietic stem cells and progenitor cells, and its expression is frequently seen in various myeloid neoplasms, including AML and MPNs. However, its presence alone is not specific enough to definitively differentiate between MDS with excess blasts and AML without considering other markers and morphological features. Therefore, the presence of aberrant CD56 expression on a substantial population of myeloid blasts, in conjunction with the morphological findings and other immunophenotypic markers, would strongly support a diagnosis leaning towards AML or a more aggressive form of MDS, making it a key differentiator in this diagnostic dilemma. The other options represent markers that are either not typically associated with myeloid neoplasms (CD10, CD20) or are commonly expressed across a broader spectrum of myeloid disorders without providing the same discriminatory power in this specific scenario. The American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University emphasizes the importance of precise immunophenotypic characterization for accurate classification and patient management, making the understanding of such specific marker expressions crucial.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the diagnostic utility of specific immunophenotypic markers in differentiating between certain myeloid neoplasms, particularly focusing on the nuances relevant to advanced hematopathology training at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The scenario describes a patient with a suspected myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) with excess blasts, where distinguishing between MDS and acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is critical for prognosis and treatment. In this context, the aberrant expression of CD56 (also known as NCAM) on myeloid blasts is a well-established finding that is more frequently observed in AML, particularly certain subtypes like acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) and AML with myelodysplasia-related changes, and can also be seen in some myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPNs). While CD56 can be expressed in normal myeloid precursors, its consistent and strong expression on a significant proportion of blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow aspirate is considered an abnormal finding. Conversely, CD10, a marker typically associated with B-cell lymphoid precursors and germinal center B-cells, is not a characteristic marker of myeloid neoplasms. Its presence in a myeloid neoplasm would be highly unusual and might suggest a mixed phenotype leukemia or a diagnostic artifact. CD20 is another marker primarily found on B-lymphocytes, and its expression on myeloid blasts is rare and indicative of a B-lymphoid lineage involvement or a rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia. CD117 (c-Kit) is a transmembrane tyrosine kinase receptor that is commonly expressed on hematopoietic stem cells and progenitor cells, and its expression is frequently seen in various myeloid neoplasms, including AML and MPNs. However, its presence alone is not specific enough to definitively differentiate between MDS with excess blasts and AML without considering other markers and morphological features. Therefore, the presence of aberrant CD56 expression on a substantial population of myeloid blasts, in conjunction with the morphological findings and other immunophenotypic markers, would strongly support a diagnosis leaning towards AML or a more aggressive form of MDS, making it a key differentiator in this diagnostic dilemma. The other options represent markers that are either not typically associated with myeloid neoplasms (CD10, CD20) or are commonly expressed across a broader spectrum of myeloid disorders without providing the same discriminatory power in this specific scenario. The American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University emphasizes the importance of precise immunophenotypic characterization for accurate classification and patient management, making the understanding of such specific marker expressions crucial.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
A 45-year-old male presents with rapidly progressing lymphadenopathy and constitutional symptoms. A lymph node biopsy reveals a diffuse proliferation of medium-sized lymphoid cells with scant cytoplasm and numerous mitotic figures, consistent with a high-grade lymphoma. Flow cytometry analysis of the aspirate demonstrates the following immunophenotype: CD19+, CD20 (bright), CD22+, CD79a (cytoplasmic and surface), CD10-, and surface immunoglobulin kappa light chain restricted. Considering the differential diagnosis of a high-grade lymphoid malignancy, which of the following immunophenotypic findings is most crucial in distinguishing this case from a typical B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma at the American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University?
Correct
The core of this question lies in understanding the distinct immunophenotypic profiles that differentiate B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma (B-ALL) from mature B-cell lymphomas, specifically Burkitt lymphoma, using flow cytometry. B-ALL typically expresses CD10, CD19, CD20 (often weakly or heterogeneously), CD22, and cytoplasmic CD79a. Aberrant expression of myeloid markers like CD13 or CD33 can also be seen. Burkitt lymphoma, a mature B-cell neoplasm, is characterized by strong and homogeneous expression of surface immunoglobulin (sIg), CD19, CD20, CD22, and CD79a, but importantly, it lacks CD10 expression. The presence of sIg is a key differentiator between B-ALL (which typically lacks surface immunoglobulin) and mature B-cell lymphomas. Therefore, the combination of CD19+, CD20+, CD10-, and sIg+ definitively points towards a mature B-cell lymphoma, such as Burkitt lymphoma, rather than B-ALL. The absence of CD10 and the presence of surface immunoglobulin are critical markers that distinguish these two entities at the immunophenotypic level.
Incorrect
The core of this question lies in understanding the distinct immunophenotypic profiles that differentiate B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma (B-ALL) from mature B-cell lymphomas, specifically Burkitt lymphoma, using flow cytometry. B-ALL typically expresses CD10, CD19, CD20 (often weakly or heterogeneously), CD22, and cytoplasmic CD79a. Aberrant expression of myeloid markers like CD13 or CD33 can also be seen. Burkitt lymphoma, a mature B-cell neoplasm, is characterized by strong and homogeneous expression of surface immunoglobulin (sIg), CD19, CD20, CD22, and CD79a, but importantly, it lacks CD10 expression. The presence of sIg is a key differentiator between B-ALL (which typically lacks surface immunoglobulin) and mature B-cell lymphomas. Therefore, the combination of CD19+, CD20+, CD10-, and sIg+ definitively points towards a mature B-cell lymphoma, such as Burkitt lymphoma, rather than B-ALL. The absence of CD10 and the presence of surface immunoglobulin are critical markers that distinguish these two entities at the immunophenotypic level.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A 68-year-old individual presents with new-onset pancytopenia and constitutional symptoms. A bone marrow aspirate and biopsy are performed. Morphological examination reveals dysplastic changes in erythroid and myeloid precursors, along with a hypercellular marrow for age. Flow cytometry demonstrates aberrant expression of CD13 and CD34 on myeloid blasts, but also notable positivity for CD56 on a significant population of myeloid progenitors. Considering the diagnostic criteria for myeloid neoplasms and the typical immunophenotypic profiles encountered in hematopathology practice at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, which of the following immunophenotypic findings, in conjunction with the observed morphology, most strongly supports a diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome over other myeloid malignancies?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the diagnostic utility of specific immunophenotypic markers in differentiating between distinct myeloid neoplasms, particularly focusing on the nuances of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) and myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN). The correct answer hinges on recognizing that the aberrant expression of CD56, a natural killer cell marker, is a well-established finding in a significant proportion of MDS cases, often correlating with specific cytogenetic abnormalities and a higher risk of progression to acute myeloid leukemia. While other myeloid neoplasms can occasionally show CD56 expression, its prevalence and diagnostic significance are most pronounced in MDS. Conversely, CD117 (c-KIT) is a common marker in MPNs, particularly CML and primary myelofibrosis, but its presence alone is not exclusionary for MDS. CD13 is a pan-myeloid marker found in both conditions. CD34, indicative of immature myeloid progenitors, is also present in both MDS and MPNs, but its aberrant loss or diminished expression in specific lineages can be a feature of MDS. Therefore, the consistent and often high-level expression of CD56 in the absence of other defining features of MPN strongly points towards an MDS diagnosis, especially in the context of a bone marrow examination. This understanding is crucial for accurate subclassification and prognostication, directly impacting patient management strategies at institutions like American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, where precise diagnosis is paramount.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the diagnostic utility of specific immunophenotypic markers in differentiating between distinct myeloid neoplasms, particularly focusing on the nuances of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) and myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN). The correct answer hinges on recognizing that the aberrant expression of CD56, a natural killer cell marker, is a well-established finding in a significant proportion of MDS cases, often correlating with specific cytogenetic abnormalities and a higher risk of progression to acute myeloid leukemia. While other myeloid neoplasms can occasionally show CD56 expression, its prevalence and diagnostic significance are most pronounced in MDS. Conversely, CD117 (c-KIT) is a common marker in MPNs, particularly CML and primary myelofibrosis, but its presence alone is not exclusionary for MDS. CD13 is a pan-myeloid marker found in both conditions. CD34, indicative of immature myeloid progenitors, is also present in both MDS and MPNs, but its aberrant loss or diminished expression in specific lineages can be a feature of MDS. Therefore, the consistent and often high-level expression of CD56 in the absence of other defining features of MPN strongly points towards an MDS diagnosis, especially in the context of a bone marrow examination. This understanding is crucial for accurate subclassification and prognostication, directly impacting patient management strategies at institutions like American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, where precise diagnosis is paramount.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A 72-year-old male presents with fatigue and recurrent infections. Peripheral blood smear reveals 15% blasts. A bone marrow aspirate and biopsy are performed. Morphological assessment of the bone marrow shows 20% blasts, dysplastic changes in erythroid and myeloid lineages, and megaloblastoid erythropoiesis. Cytogenetic analysis reveals trisomy 8. Laboratory values include hemoglobin 8.5 g/dL, platelet count 45 x \(10^9\)/L, and absolute neutrophil count 0.8 x \(10^9\)/L. Based on the International Prognostic Scoring System-Revised (IPSS-R), what is the risk category for this patient, and what is the primary implication for management at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a newly diagnosed myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) with excess blasts, specifically 15% blasts in the peripheral blood and 20% in the bone marrow. The patient also exhibits trisomy 8. The International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS-R) is a widely used tool for stratifying MDS patients based on several factors: cytogenetics, bone marrow blast percentage, and cytopenias (hemoglobin, platelet count, and absolute neutrophil count). For this patient: 1. **Cytogenetics:** Trisomy 8 is considered an intermediate risk cytogenetic abnormality. In the IPSS-R, this is assigned a score of 2.0. 2. **Bone Marrow Blast Percentage:** 20% blasts in the bone marrow falls into the “2-3 blasts” category, which has a score of 1.0 in the IPSS-R. 3. **Cytopenias:** * Hemoglobin: 8.5 g/dL. This falls into the “6.5-8.5 g/dL” category, scoring 1.5. * Platelet Count: 45 x \(10^9\)/L. This falls into the “<20 x \(10^9\)/L" category, scoring 2.0. * Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC): 0.8 x \(10^9\)/L. This falls into the "<0.5 x \(10^9\)/L" category, scoring 1.5. Total IPSS-R Score = Cytogenetics Score + Blast Percentage Score + Hemoglobin Score + Platelet Score + ANC Score Total IPSS-R Score = 2.0 + 1.0 + 1.5 + 2.0 + 1.5 = 8.0 An IPSS-R score of 8.0 falls into the "Intermediate" risk category. This risk stratification is crucial for guiding treatment decisions, as patients in higher risk categories generally benefit from more aggressive therapies, such as hypomethylating agents or allogeneic stem cell transplantation, while lower-risk patients may be managed with supportive care or growth factors. The understanding of how each component contributes to the overall score and the implications of the resulting risk category are fundamental for hematopathologists in their role of providing prognostic information to the clinical team at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The accurate application of prognostic scoring systems like IPSS-R directly impacts patient management strategies and aligns with the university's commitment to evidence-based practice and patient-centered care.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a newly diagnosed myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) with excess blasts, specifically 15% blasts in the peripheral blood and 20% in the bone marrow. The patient also exhibits trisomy 8. The International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS-R) is a widely used tool for stratifying MDS patients based on several factors: cytogenetics, bone marrow blast percentage, and cytopenias (hemoglobin, platelet count, and absolute neutrophil count). For this patient: 1. **Cytogenetics:** Trisomy 8 is considered an intermediate risk cytogenetic abnormality. In the IPSS-R, this is assigned a score of 2.0. 2. **Bone Marrow Blast Percentage:** 20% blasts in the bone marrow falls into the “2-3 blasts” category, which has a score of 1.0 in the IPSS-R. 3. **Cytopenias:** * Hemoglobin: 8.5 g/dL. This falls into the “6.5-8.5 g/dL” category, scoring 1.5. * Platelet Count: 45 x \(10^9\)/L. This falls into the “<20 x \(10^9\)/L" category, scoring 2.0. * Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC): 0.8 x \(10^9\)/L. This falls into the "<0.5 x \(10^9\)/L" category, scoring 1.5. Total IPSS-R Score = Cytogenetics Score + Blast Percentage Score + Hemoglobin Score + Platelet Score + ANC Score Total IPSS-R Score = 2.0 + 1.0 + 1.5 + 2.0 + 1.5 = 8.0 An IPSS-R score of 8.0 falls into the "Intermediate" risk category. This risk stratification is crucial for guiding treatment decisions, as patients in higher risk categories generally benefit from more aggressive therapies, such as hypomethylating agents or allogeneic stem cell transplantation, while lower-risk patients may be managed with supportive care or growth factors. The understanding of how each component contributes to the overall score and the implications of the resulting risk category are fundamental for hematopathologists in their role of providing prognostic information to the clinical team at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The accurate application of prognostic scoring systems like IPSS-R directly impacts patient management strategies and aligns with the university's commitment to evidence-based practice and patient-centered care.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
A 68-year-old male presents with progressive cervical lymphadenopathy and constitutional symptoms. A lymph node biopsy reveals a diffuse infiltrate of small to medium-sized lymphoid cells. Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy show a similar infiltrate comprising approximately 30% of the cellularity. Flow cytometry on the peripheral blood and bone marrow demonstrates a clonal B-cell population expressing CD19, CD20, CD5, CD43, and kappa light chains, with negativity for CD10 and CD23. Considering the differential diagnosis for CD5-positive B-cell lymphoproliferative disorders, which molecular investigation is most critical for definitively establishing the diagnosis of mantle cell lymphoma in this patient, given the presented immunophenotype and the need for precise classification within the American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University’s rigorous diagnostic standards?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between immunophenotypic markers and the clinical behavior of a specific B-cell lymphoid neoplasm, particularly in the context of diagnostic challenges encountered in hematopathology. The scenario describes a patient with lymphadenopathy and a bone marrow infiltrate. The flow cytometry data reveals a CD19+, CD20+, CD5+, CD43+, and kappa-restricted B-cell population. Crucially, the absence of CD10 and CD23, coupled with the presence of CD5, is highly suggestive of a mantle cell lymphoma (MCL) or a related entity, rather than chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) which typically expresses CD23 and often lacks CD43. While MCL classically harbors the \(t(11;14)\) translocation, its absence does not entirely exclude the diagnosis, especially in the presence of a consistent immunophenotype. The presence of CD43 in this context, while not a defining feature of typical MCL, can be seen in a subset of MCL cases and can also be present in other CD5+ B-cell lymphomas. However, given the options provided, the most critical distinguishing feature for a definitive diagnosis, especially when considering the potential for therapeutic implications and prognostic stratification, is the presence of the \(CCND1\) gene rearrangement, which is the hallmark of classical MCL. Without this genetic confirmation, other CD5+, CD43+ B-cell lymphomas, such as some variants of CLL or other rare entities, could be considered. Therefore, the most appropriate next step to confirm the suspected diagnosis of MCL, or to differentiate it from other possibilities, is to investigate for the \(CCND1\) rearrangement. The other options represent either less specific markers for this particular immunophenotype or are typically associated with different diagnostic categories. For instance, CD23 negativity is important but not definitive for MCL over other CD5+ B-cell neoplasms. CD10 negativity is also relevant but does not uniquely point to MCL. While \(IGHV\) mutational status is crucial for CLL prognosis, it is not the primary diagnostic marker for MCL.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between immunophenotypic markers and the clinical behavior of a specific B-cell lymphoid neoplasm, particularly in the context of diagnostic challenges encountered in hematopathology. The scenario describes a patient with lymphadenopathy and a bone marrow infiltrate. The flow cytometry data reveals a CD19+, CD20+, CD5+, CD43+, and kappa-restricted B-cell population. Crucially, the absence of CD10 and CD23, coupled with the presence of CD5, is highly suggestive of a mantle cell lymphoma (MCL) or a related entity, rather than chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) which typically expresses CD23 and often lacks CD43. While MCL classically harbors the \(t(11;14)\) translocation, its absence does not entirely exclude the diagnosis, especially in the presence of a consistent immunophenotype. The presence of CD43 in this context, while not a defining feature of typical MCL, can be seen in a subset of MCL cases and can also be present in other CD5+ B-cell lymphomas. However, given the options provided, the most critical distinguishing feature for a definitive diagnosis, especially when considering the potential for therapeutic implications and prognostic stratification, is the presence of the \(CCND1\) gene rearrangement, which is the hallmark of classical MCL. Without this genetic confirmation, other CD5+, CD43+ B-cell lymphomas, such as some variants of CLL or other rare entities, could be considered. Therefore, the most appropriate next step to confirm the suspected diagnosis of MCL, or to differentiate it from other possibilities, is to investigate for the \(CCND1\) rearrangement. The other options represent either less specific markers for this particular immunophenotype or are typically associated with different diagnostic categories. For instance, CD23 negativity is important but not definitive for MCL over other CD5+ B-cell neoplasms. CD10 negativity is also relevant but does not uniquely point to MCL. While \(IGHV\) mutational status is crucial for CLL prognosis, it is not the primary diagnostic marker for MCL.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A 72-year-old individual presents to American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University with progressive fatigue and easy bruising. Peripheral blood smear reveals pancytopenia and circulating blasts. Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy demonstrate trilineage dysplasia and approximately 25% blasts. Flow cytometry analysis of the bone marrow aspirate shows a myeloid population positive for CD13, CD33, and CD117. Crucially, this myeloid population also demonstrates aberrant co-expression of CD56 on a substantial subset of the blasts. No significant expression of B-cell or T-cell lineage markers is observed. Considering the diagnostic criteria for myeloid neoplasms and the principles of immunophenotypic analysis taught at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University, which of the following interpretations most accurately reflects the findings?
Correct
The question probes the nuanced understanding of immunophenotypic aberrancies in the context of myeloid neoplasms, specifically differentiating between myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) and acute myeloid leukemia (AML). In a patient presenting with pancytopenia and dysplastic changes in the bone marrow, the presence of aberrant antigen expression is a critical diagnostic clue. The scenario describes a myeloid population exhibiting CD13, CD33, and CD117 positivity, which are typical myeloid markers. However, the key diagnostic differentiator lies in the co-expression of CD56, a marker typically associated with NK cells and some T-cell subsets, on a significant proportion of these myeloid blasts. While CD56 can be seen in a subset of AML, its aberrant expression on myeloid blasts in the context of pancytopenia and dysplasia strongly suggests a diagnosis of AML with myelodysplasia-related changes or a specific subtype of AML where this aberrant phenotype is characteristic. Conversely, while some myeloid progenitor cells might express CD56, its widespread aberrant co-expression on a significant blast population in the peripheral blood and bone marrow, particularly in conjunction with other myeloid markers, is a hallmark of a neoplastic process rather than normal maturation. The absence of significant B-cell or T-cell lineage markers further solidifies the myeloid origin. Therefore, the immunophenotypic profile described is most consistent with a myeloid malignancy.
Incorrect
The question probes the nuanced understanding of immunophenotypic aberrancies in the context of myeloid neoplasms, specifically differentiating between myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) and acute myeloid leukemia (AML). In a patient presenting with pancytopenia and dysplastic changes in the bone marrow, the presence of aberrant antigen expression is a critical diagnostic clue. The scenario describes a myeloid population exhibiting CD13, CD33, and CD117 positivity, which are typical myeloid markers. However, the key diagnostic differentiator lies in the co-expression of CD56, a marker typically associated with NK cells and some T-cell subsets, on a significant proportion of these myeloid blasts. While CD56 can be seen in a subset of AML, its aberrant expression on myeloid blasts in the context of pancytopenia and dysplasia strongly suggests a diagnosis of AML with myelodysplasia-related changes or a specific subtype of AML where this aberrant phenotype is characteristic. Conversely, while some myeloid progenitor cells might express CD56, its widespread aberrant co-expression on a significant blast population in the peripheral blood and bone marrow, particularly in conjunction with other myeloid markers, is a hallmark of a neoplastic process rather than normal maturation. The absence of significant B-cell or T-cell lineage markers further solidifies the myeloid origin. Therefore, the immunophenotypic profile described is most consistent with a myeloid malignancy.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Consider a 72-year-old male admitted to American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University Medical Center with symptoms of fatigue and recurrent infections. Peripheral blood smear reveals macrocytosis and dysplastic changes in myeloid precursors. Bone marrow biopsy demonstrates hypercellularity with 15% blasts and significant trilineage dysplasia. Cytogenetic analysis reveals a complex karyotype with \(del(5q)\) and molecular testing identifies a concurrent *TP53* mutation. Based on these findings and the established classification systems for myeloid neoplasms, how would this patient’s disease be most accurately characterized and what are the primary implications for management within the context of advanced hematopathology training at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific genetic alterations and their impact on the diagnostic classification and therapeutic stratification of myeloid neoplasms, a core competency for hematopathology fellows at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The scenario describes a patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) and a complex karyotype including a deletion on chromosome 5. The presence of a deletion on chromosome 5, specifically \(del(5q)\), is a well-established cytogenetic abnormality associated with a higher risk of transformation to acute myeloid leukemia (AML) and a generally poorer prognosis within the MDS spectrum. Furthermore, the identification of a concurrent mutation in *TP53* is a critical factor that significantly alters the prognostic and therapeutic considerations. *TP53* mutations are strongly associated with a higher likelihood of AML transformation, resistance to conventional MDS therapies, and a poor response to hypomethylating agents, which are often first-line treatments for higher-risk MDS. Therefore, the combination of \(del(5q)\) and a *TP53* mutation places the patient in a category that warrants aggressive management and a different therapeutic approach compared to MDS with isolated \(del(5q)\) or other less complex cytogenetic abnormalities. This understanding is crucial for accurate risk stratification and guiding treatment decisions, aligning with the advanced clinical reasoning expected at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The correct approach involves recognizing that these combined genetic findings necessitate a reclassification and a more intensive treatment strategy, often involving allogeneic stem cell transplantation or novel therapeutic agents, rather than standard supportive care or less intensive regimens.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the interplay between specific genetic alterations and their impact on the diagnostic classification and therapeutic stratification of myeloid neoplasms, a core competency for hematopathology fellows at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The scenario describes a patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) and a complex karyotype including a deletion on chromosome 5. The presence of a deletion on chromosome 5, specifically \(del(5q)\), is a well-established cytogenetic abnormality associated with a higher risk of transformation to acute myeloid leukemia (AML) and a generally poorer prognosis within the MDS spectrum. Furthermore, the identification of a concurrent mutation in *TP53* is a critical factor that significantly alters the prognostic and therapeutic considerations. *TP53* mutations are strongly associated with a higher likelihood of AML transformation, resistance to conventional MDS therapies, and a poor response to hypomethylating agents, which are often first-line treatments for higher-risk MDS. Therefore, the combination of \(del(5q)\) and a *TP53* mutation places the patient in a category that warrants aggressive management and a different therapeutic approach compared to MDS with isolated \(del(5q)\) or other less complex cytogenetic abnormalities. This understanding is crucial for accurate risk stratification and guiding treatment decisions, aligning with the advanced clinical reasoning expected at American Board of Pathology – Subspecialty in Hematopathology University. The correct approach involves recognizing that these combined genetic findings necessitate a reclassification and a more intensive treatment strategy, often involving allogeneic stem cell transplantation or novel therapeutic agents, rather than standard supportive care or less intensive regimens.