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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
A 52-year-old male with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents to your sleep clinic complaining of excessive daytime sleepiness. Polysomnography reveals severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) with an AHI of 45 events/hour and significant oxygen desaturation. You strongly recommend continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) therapy, but the patient adamantly refuses, stating he “cannot tolerate” the mask. He is a commercial truck driver and insists on continuing his driving career despite your warnings about the dangers of untreated OSA. He signs a waiver acknowledging the risks. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step for you as the sleep specialist, considering both patient autonomy and legal/ethical obligations?
Correct
The question explores the complex interplay between sleep disorders, legal regulations, and patient care within a sleep medicine practice. The core issue revolves around a patient diagnosed with severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) who refuses the recommended CPAP therapy and expresses a desire to continue driving commercial vehicles. The legal and ethical obligations of the sleep specialist are paramount in this scenario. Firstly, the sleep specialist has a duty to inform the patient of the risks associated with untreated OSA, particularly the increased risk of accidents due to excessive daytime sleepiness and impaired cognitive function. This information must be clearly documented in the patient’s medical record. Secondly, the specialist must be aware of the specific regulations governing commercial drivers with OSA. The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) has guidelines regarding sleep apnea screening and treatment for commercial drivers. Depending on the severity of the OSA, the driver may be required to undergo treatment and demonstrate compliance before being medically cleared to drive. The specialist needs to know whether the patient’s OSA severity exceeds the FMCSA’s thresholds for mandatory intervention. Thirdly, the specialist must consider whether they have a legal or ethical obligation to report the patient’s condition to the FMCSA or the patient’s employer. This depends on state laws and institutional policies. Some states have mandatory reporting laws for conditions that could impair driving ability, while others do not. Even in the absence of a mandatory reporting law, the specialist may have an ethical obligation to warn third parties if they believe the patient poses a significant risk of harm. Finally, the specialist should explore alternative treatment options with the patient, such as oral appliances or surgical interventions, to address the OSA and mitigate the risks associated with driving. The specialist should also document all discussions with the patient, including the risks of untreated OSA, the recommended treatment options, and the patient’s refusal of CPAP therapy. This documentation is crucial for protecting the specialist from potential liability. Therefore, the most appropriate course of action involves a combination of patient education, documentation, and awareness of relevant regulations, potentially including reporting to relevant authorities if required by law or ethical considerations.
Incorrect
The question explores the complex interplay between sleep disorders, legal regulations, and patient care within a sleep medicine practice. The core issue revolves around a patient diagnosed with severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) who refuses the recommended CPAP therapy and expresses a desire to continue driving commercial vehicles. The legal and ethical obligations of the sleep specialist are paramount in this scenario. Firstly, the sleep specialist has a duty to inform the patient of the risks associated with untreated OSA, particularly the increased risk of accidents due to excessive daytime sleepiness and impaired cognitive function. This information must be clearly documented in the patient’s medical record. Secondly, the specialist must be aware of the specific regulations governing commercial drivers with OSA. The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) has guidelines regarding sleep apnea screening and treatment for commercial drivers. Depending on the severity of the OSA, the driver may be required to undergo treatment and demonstrate compliance before being medically cleared to drive. The specialist needs to know whether the patient’s OSA severity exceeds the FMCSA’s thresholds for mandatory intervention. Thirdly, the specialist must consider whether they have a legal or ethical obligation to report the patient’s condition to the FMCSA or the patient’s employer. This depends on state laws and institutional policies. Some states have mandatory reporting laws for conditions that could impair driving ability, while others do not. Even in the absence of a mandatory reporting law, the specialist may have an ethical obligation to warn third parties if they believe the patient poses a significant risk of harm. Finally, the specialist should explore alternative treatment options with the patient, such as oral appliances or surgical interventions, to address the OSA and mitigate the risks associated with driving. The specialist should also document all discussions with the patient, including the risks of untreated OSA, the recommended treatment options, and the patient’s refusal of CPAP therapy. This documentation is crucial for protecting the specialist from potential liability. Therefore, the most appropriate course of action involves a combination of patient education, documentation, and awareness of relevant regulations, potentially including reporting to relevant authorities if required by law or ethical considerations.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
A 55-year-old male with a BMI of 38 kg/m² is diagnosed with severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) following an overnight polysomnogram. His Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) is 45 events/hour, and his oxygen saturation nadir is 78%. He reports significant daytime sleepiness and has a history of hypertension. The sleep physician recommends continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) therapy. Considering the patient’s body habitus and the severity of his OSA, which PAP interface is MOST appropriate as the initial choice, prioritizing both efficacy and adherence? The CPAP machine has heated humidification available.
Correct
The question explores the complex interplay between obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), obesity, and the selection of an appropriate positive airway pressure (PAP) interface. The key lies in understanding how obesity affects respiratory mechanics and PAP therapy adherence. Obesity often leads to reduced chest wall compliance and increased abdominal pressure, which in turn can decrease functional residual capacity (FRC) and promote upper airway collapse. A full-face mask, while potentially addressing mouth leaks, can exacerbate feelings of claustrophobia and discomfort, particularly in obese patients who may already experience dyspnea or anxiety. Nasal pillows, although comfortable for some, might not provide adequate pressure delivery or leak management in patients with significant nasal congestion or high PAP pressure requirements, common in severe OSA. A chinstrap, while useful for preventing mouth leaks with nasal masks, doesn’t address the underlying issue of interface suitability or pressure requirements. A nasal mask offers a balance between comfort, pressure delivery, and leak management, particularly when combined with effective humidification. The crucial element is careful titration to determine the optimal pressure that resolves respiratory events without causing undue discomfort or air leaks. This often requires a gradual ramp-up of pressure and close monitoring of patient tolerance. The decision should also incorporate patient preference after trialing different mask types. Considering the patient’s body habitus, a nasal mask, when appropriately fitted and titrated, can improve adherence and therapeutic efficacy.
Incorrect
The question explores the complex interplay between obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), obesity, and the selection of an appropriate positive airway pressure (PAP) interface. The key lies in understanding how obesity affects respiratory mechanics and PAP therapy adherence. Obesity often leads to reduced chest wall compliance and increased abdominal pressure, which in turn can decrease functional residual capacity (FRC) and promote upper airway collapse. A full-face mask, while potentially addressing mouth leaks, can exacerbate feelings of claustrophobia and discomfort, particularly in obese patients who may already experience dyspnea or anxiety. Nasal pillows, although comfortable for some, might not provide adequate pressure delivery or leak management in patients with significant nasal congestion or high PAP pressure requirements, common in severe OSA. A chinstrap, while useful for preventing mouth leaks with nasal masks, doesn’t address the underlying issue of interface suitability or pressure requirements. A nasal mask offers a balance between comfort, pressure delivery, and leak management, particularly when combined with effective humidification. The crucial element is careful titration to determine the optimal pressure that resolves respiratory events without causing undue discomfort or air leaks. This often requires a gradual ramp-up of pressure and close monitoring of patient tolerance. The decision should also incorporate patient preference after trialing different mask types. Considering the patient’s body habitus, a nasal mask, when appropriately fitted and titrated, can improve adherence and therapeutic efficacy.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
A 58-year-old patient with Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS) has been taking pramipexole for 3 years with good initial symptom control. However, over the past several months, she has noticed that her RLS symptoms are occurring earlier in the day, are more intense, and are now affecting her arms in addition to her legs. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS) and its treatment, specifically focusing on the use of dopaminergic agents and the potential for augmentation. Augmentation is a common complication of long-term dopaminergic treatment for RLS. It is characterized by a worsening of RLS symptoms, including earlier onset of symptoms in the day, increased intensity of symptoms, and spread of symptoms to other body parts. If augmentation is suspected, the first step is typically to reduce or discontinue the dopaminergic agent. Other treatment options for RLS include non-dopaminergic agents, such as alpha-2-delta ligands (e.g., gabapentin, pregabalin) and iron supplementation (if iron deficiency is present). Increasing the dose of the dopaminergic agent may provide temporary relief, but will ultimately worsen the augmentation. Switching to a different dopaminergic agent may also provide temporary relief, but augmentation is likely to occur again.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS) and its treatment, specifically focusing on the use of dopaminergic agents and the potential for augmentation. Augmentation is a common complication of long-term dopaminergic treatment for RLS. It is characterized by a worsening of RLS symptoms, including earlier onset of symptoms in the day, increased intensity of symptoms, and spread of symptoms to other body parts. If augmentation is suspected, the first step is typically to reduce or discontinue the dopaminergic agent. Other treatment options for RLS include non-dopaminergic agents, such as alpha-2-delta ligands (e.g., gabapentin, pregabalin) and iron supplementation (if iron deficiency is present). Increasing the dose of the dopaminergic agent may provide temporary relief, but will ultimately worsen the augmentation. Switching to a different dopaminergic agent may also provide temporary relief, but augmentation is likely to occur again.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
A 62-year-old male is diagnosed with idiopathic REM Sleep Behavior Disorder (RBD) based on polysomnography findings of REM sleep without atonia and a history of dream enactment. He has no other neurological symptoms or cognitive impairment. What is the *most appropriate* recommendation regarding the long-term management of this patient?
Correct
This question is designed to test the understanding of REM Sleep Behavior Disorder (RBD) and its association with neurodegenerative diseases, particularly synucleinopathies like Parkinson’s disease, Dementia with Lewy Bodies, and Multiple System Atrophy. RBD often precedes the motor and cognitive symptoms of these diseases by several years, sometimes even decades. The presence of RBD is a significant risk factor for developing a synucleinopathy. While not all patients with RBD will develop a neurodegenerative disease, the risk is substantial. Therefore, the *most appropriate* recommendation is to inform the patient about the increased risk of developing a neurodegenerative disease and recommend regular neurological follow-up. While medications can manage the symptoms of RBD, they do not prevent the development of neurodegenerative diseases. Genetic testing is not routinely indicated for RBD unless there is a strong family history of neurodegenerative disease.
Incorrect
This question is designed to test the understanding of REM Sleep Behavior Disorder (RBD) and its association with neurodegenerative diseases, particularly synucleinopathies like Parkinson’s disease, Dementia with Lewy Bodies, and Multiple System Atrophy. RBD often precedes the motor and cognitive symptoms of these diseases by several years, sometimes even decades. The presence of RBD is a significant risk factor for developing a synucleinopathy. While not all patients with RBD will develop a neurodegenerative disease, the risk is substantial. Therefore, the *most appropriate* recommendation is to inform the patient about the increased risk of developing a neurodegenerative disease and recommend regular neurological follow-up. While medications can manage the symptoms of RBD, they do not prevent the development of neurodegenerative diseases. Genetic testing is not routinely indicated for RBD unless there is a strong family history of neurodegenerative disease.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
A 45-year-old male commercial truck driver presents to your sleep clinic for evaluation of excessive daytime sleepiness. Polysomnography reveals severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) with an Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) of 45 events per hour. You discuss the risks of untreated OSA with the patient, emphasizing the dangers of driving while sleepy, particularly given his profession. You strongly recommend CPAP therapy and advise him to inform his employer of his condition and temporarily refrain from driving until his OSA is adequately treated. The patient acknowledges your recommendations but refuses to inform his employer and states he cannot afford to stop driving, even temporarily. He assures you he will be careful. Considering the ethical and legal obligations of a sleep medicine physician in this scenario, what is the MOST appropriate next step?
Correct
The question centers on the legal and ethical responsibilities of a sleep medicine physician when encountering potential safety concerns related to a patient’s sleep disorder and their occupation, particularly in safety-sensitive roles. The core issue is balancing patient confidentiality with the duty to protect the public. The physician’s primary responsibility is to the patient. However, this responsibility is not absolute. There are circumstances where the physician’s duty to protect the public outweighs patient confidentiality. These situations typically involve imminent and serious harm. In this case, a commercial truck driver with untreated severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) poses a significant risk of causing a motor vehicle accident, potentially resulting in serious injury or death to others. HIPAA allows for the disclosure of protected health information when necessary to prevent a serious and imminent threat to health or safety. This exception to confidentiality must be carefully considered and documented. Before disclosing any information, the physician should attempt to mitigate the risk through less intrusive means, such as strongly advising the patient to inform their employer and temporarily cease driving until the OSA is adequately treated. The physician should also document these discussions and recommendations in the patient’s medical record. If the patient refuses to comply and continues to drive, and the physician believes there is a reasonable probability of serious harm, the physician may be justified in disclosing limited information to the appropriate authorities (e.g., the Department of Motor Vehicles or the employer’s medical review officer). The disclosure should be limited to the minimum necessary information to prevent the harm. The physician should also consult with legal counsel and the relevant professional guidelines (e.g., those from the American Academy of Sleep Medicine) before making any disclosure. Simply documenting the concern without taking further action may not be sufficient to meet the ethical and legal obligations. Automatically reporting the patient without attempting less intrusive measures would violate patient confidentiality. The physician must consider all options and act in a way that balances patient autonomy with public safety.
Incorrect
The question centers on the legal and ethical responsibilities of a sleep medicine physician when encountering potential safety concerns related to a patient’s sleep disorder and their occupation, particularly in safety-sensitive roles. The core issue is balancing patient confidentiality with the duty to protect the public. The physician’s primary responsibility is to the patient. However, this responsibility is not absolute. There are circumstances where the physician’s duty to protect the public outweighs patient confidentiality. These situations typically involve imminent and serious harm. In this case, a commercial truck driver with untreated severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) poses a significant risk of causing a motor vehicle accident, potentially resulting in serious injury or death to others. HIPAA allows for the disclosure of protected health information when necessary to prevent a serious and imminent threat to health or safety. This exception to confidentiality must be carefully considered and documented. Before disclosing any information, the physician should attempt to mitigate the risk through less intrusive means, such as strongly advising the patient to inform their employer and temporarily cease driving until the OSA is adequately treated. The physician should also document these discussions and recommendations in the patient’s medical record. If the patient refuses to comply and continues to drive, and the physician believes there is a reasonable probability of serious harm, the physician may be justified in disclosing limited information to the appropriate authorities (e.g., the Department of Motor Vehicles or the employer’s medical review officer). The disclosure should be limited to the minimum necessary information to prevent the harm. The physician should also consult with legal counsel and the relevant professional guidelines (e.g., those from the American Academy of Sleep Medicine) before making any disclosure. Simply documenting the concern without taking further action may not be sufficient to meet the ethical and legal obligations. Automatically reporting the patient without attempting less intrusive measures would violate patient confidentiality. The physician must consider all options and act in a way that balances patient autonomy with public safety.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
A 32-year-old woman, 28 weeks pregnant, presents to your sleep clinic with complaints of excessive daytime sleepiness, loud snoring, and witnessed apneas by her partner. Her Epworth Sleepiness Scale score is 16. She has a history of mild hypertension, well-controlled with lifestyle modifications prior to pregnancy. Physical examination reveals a BMI of 33 kg/m², a Mallampati score of III, and mild peripheral edema. An overnight polysomnogram (PSG) reveals an AHI of 35 events/hour, with a nadir oxygen saturation of 82%. Considering the potential risks to both the mother and the fetus, which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial intervention for this patient?
Correct
The question explores the complex interplay between sleep disorders, specifically obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), and their impact on cardiovascular health, while also introducing the added complexity of pregnancy. Understanding the physiological changes during pregnancy, such as increased blood volume, hormonal shifts, and altered respiratory mechanics, is crucial. These changes can exacerbate pre-existing conditions like OSA or even lead to its development *de novo*. OSA, characterized by intermittent hypoxia and sleep fragmentation, triggers a cascade of physiological responses, including increased sympathetic nervous system activity, systemic inflammation, and endothelial dysfunction. These factors contribute to the development and progression of cardiovascular diseases such as hypertension, arrhythmias, and heart failure. During pregnancy, untreated OSA poses significant risks to both the mother and the fetus. Maternal risks include gestational hypertension, preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and an increased risk of cesarean delivery. Fetal risks include intrauterine growth restriction, preterm birth, and even stillbirth. The question requires the examinee to consider these multifaceted interactions and identify the most appropriate initial intervention to mitigate these risks, understanding that CPAP therapy is the gold standard treatment for OSA but requires careful titration and monitoring, especially during pregnancy. While other interventions like positional therapy or oral appliances may have a role in specific cases of OSA, they are generally not the first-line treatment, particularly in pregnant women with moderate to severe OSA. The prompt also requires an understanding of the role of lifestyle modifications and other interventions in managing these complex cases.
Incorrect
The question explores the complex interplay between sleep disorders, specifically obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), and their impact on cardiovascular health, while also introducing the added complexity of pregnancy. Understanding the physiological changes during pregnancy, such as increased blood volume, hormonal shifts, and altered respiratory mechanics, is crucial. These changes can exacerbate pre-existing conditions like OSA or even lead to its development *de novo*. OSA, characterized by intermittent hypoxia and sleep fragmentation, triggers a cascade of physiological responses, including increased sympathetic nervous system activity, systemic inflammation, and endothelial dysfunction. These factors contribute to the development and progression of cardiovascular diseases such as hypertension, arrhythmias, and heart failure. During pregnancy, untreated OSA poses significant risks to both the mother and the fetus. Maternal risks include gestational hypertension, preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and an increased risk of cesarean delivery. Fetal risks include intrauterine growth restriction, preterm birth, and even stillbirth. The question requires the examinee to consider these multifaceted interactions and identify the most appropriate initial intervention to mitigate these risks, understanding that CPAP therapy is the gold standard treatment for OSA but requires careful titration and monitoring, especially during pregnancy. While other interventions like positional therapy or oral appliances may have a role in specific cases of OSA, they are generally not the first-line treatment, particularly in pregnant women with moderate to severe OSA. The prompt also requires an understanding of the role of lifestyle modifications and other interventions in managing these complex cases.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
A 52-year-old female presents to your clinic with symptoms consistent with restless legs syndrome (RLS). She describes an irresistible urge to move her legs, especially in the evening, which is relieved by movement. Her symptoms significantly disrupt her sleep. You confirm the diagnosis based on the International Restless Legs Syndrome Study Group (IRLSSG) diagnostic criteria. Before initiating treatment with a dopamine agonist, which of the following laboratory tests is MOST important to order?
Correct
The question assesses understanding of restless legs syndrome (RLS) and its treatment, specifically the role of iron supplementation. While dopamine agonists are a common first-line treatment, iron deficiency is a well-established risk factor and contributor to RLS symptoms. Therefore, assessing and addressing iron levels is crucial, especially since iron deficiency can exacerbate RLS or even be the primary cause in some individuals. Serum ferritin is the most sensitive and specific marker for iron stores. If ferritin levels are low (typically below 75 mcg/L, but optimal levels may vary), iron supplementation is indicated, even if the patient is already on dopamine agonists. Iron supplementation can improve RLS symptoms and may even reduce the need for or dosage of dopamine agonists. Other blood tests, such as complete blood count (CBC) or transferrin saturation, can provide additional information about iron status but are less sensitive than ferritin for detecting iron deficiency in RLS. Therefore, checking serum ferritin is the most appropriate initial step in evaluating a patient with RLS, particularly if they have not been previously assessed for iron deficiency.
Incorrect
The question assesses understanding of restless legs syndrome (RLS) and its treatment, specifically the role of iron supplementation. While dopamine agonists are a common first-line treatment, iron deficiency is a well-established risk factor and contributor to RLS symptoms. Therefore, assessing and addressing iron levels is crucial, especially since iron deficiency can exacerbate RLS or even be the primary cause in some individuals. Serum ferritin is the most sensitive and specific marker for iron stores. If ferritin levels are low (typically below 75 mcg/L, but optimal levels may vary), iron supplementation is indicated, even if the patient is already on dopamine agonists. Iron supplementation can improve RLS symptoms and may even reduce the need for or dosage of dopamine agonists. Other blood tests, such as complete blood count (CBC) or transferrin saturation, can provide additional information about iron status but are less sensitive than ferritin for detecting iron deficiency in RLS. Therefore, checking serum ferritin is the most appropriate initial step in evaluating a patient with RLS, particularly if they have not been previously assessed for iron deficiency.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
A 35-year-old male with a confirmed diagnosis of narcolepsy with cataplexy is being treated with a stable dose of sodium oxybate. While his excessive daytime sleepiness is reasonably controlled, he continues to experience frequent and debilitating episodes of cataplexy, sometimes multiple times per day. His sleep specialist is considering adjunctive pharmacological options to better manage his cataplexy. Understanding the neurochemical underpinnings of narcolepsy and cataplexy, which of the following medication strategies, if implemented in isolation without adjustments to his existing sodium oxybate regimen, would most likely worsen his cataplexy symptoms due to its indirect effect on neurotransmitter balance? Assume all options are prescribed at standard starting doses. The patient has no other significant medical conditions and is not taking any other medications known to interact with sleep or wakefulness. The goal is to identify a medication that would specifically exacerbate cataplexy, not simply be ineffective.
Correct
The core issue revolves around understanding how different neurotransmitter systems interact to regulate sleep and wakefulness, particularly in the context of narcolepsy with cataplexy. Orexin (hypocretin) plays a crucial role in maintaining wakefulness and suppressing REM sleep. In narcolepsy with cataplexy, there is a deficiency of orexin neurons, leading to instability in the sleep-wake cycle and inappropriate intrusions of REM sleep phenomena (like cataplexy) into wakefulness. Acetylcholine, on the other hand, is more active during wakefulness and REM sleep. The balance between orexin and acetylcholine is critical for maintaining stable sleep-wake states. A drug that enhances cholinergic activity without addressing the underlying orexin deficiency could paradoxically worsen cataplexy. This is because increased acetylcholine, in the absence of sufficient orexin signaling, can further destabilize the boundaries between wakefulness and REM sleep, making cataplexy more likely. GABA is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, and while it promotes sleep, it doesn’t directly address the root cause of cataplexy in narcolepsy, which is orexin deficiency. Serotonin is involved in sleep regulation, but its primary effect is not the direct triggering of cataplexy. Therefore, a treatment that indirectly increases acetylcholine levels without addressing the orexin deficiency could exacerbate cataplexy symptoms.
Incorrect
The core issue revolves around understanding how different neurotransmitter systems interact to regulate sleep and wakefulness, particularly in the context of narcolepsy with cataplexy. Orexin (hypocretin) plays a crucial role in maintaining wakefulness and suppressing REM sleep. In narcolepsy with cataplexy, there is a deficiency of orexin neurons, leading to instability in the sleep-wake cycle and inappropriate intrusions of REM sleep phenomena (like cataplexy) into wakefulness. Acetylcholine, on the other hand, is more active during wakefulness and REM sleep. The balance between orexin and acetylcholine is critical for maintaining stable sleep-wake states. A drug that enhances cholinergic activity without addressing the underlying orexin deficiency could paradoxically worsen cataplexy. This is because increased acetylcholine, in the absence of sufficient orexin signaling, can further destabilize the boundaries between wakefulness and REM sleep, making cataplexy more likely. GABA is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, and while it promotes sleep, it doesn’t directly address the root cause of cataplexy in narcolepsy, which is orexin deficiency. Serotonin is involved in sleep regulation, but its primary effect is not the direct triggering of cataplexy. Therefore, a treatment that indirectly increases acetylcholine levels without addressing the orexin deficiency could exacerbate cataplexy symptoms.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
A patient undergoing polysomnography exhibits a significantly reduced percentage of REM sleep compared to age-matched norms. Review of the patient’s medication list reveals they are taking several medications. Which of the following medications is MOST likely contributing to the observed reduction in REM sleep?
Correct
The question assesses the understanding of the impact of specific medications on sleep architecture, particularly focusing on the suppression of REM sleep. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are known to significantly suppress REM sleep. This effect is due to the increased serotonin levels in the synapse, which inhibits the neuronal activity responsible for REM sleep. While other medications can affect sleep, the REM-suppressing effect is most pronounced with SSRIs. Beta-blockers can sometimes disrupt sleep but don’t characteristically suppress REM. Benzodiazepines decrease sleep latency and increase total sleep time but also suppress slow-wave sleep and REM sleep to a lesser extent than SSRIs. Antihistamines can cause drowsiness, but their impact on REM sleep is not as significant or consistent as that of SSRIs. Therefore, the most likely medication to cause a significant reduction in REM sleep is an SSRI.
Incorrect
The question assesses the understanding of the impact of specific medications on sleep architecture, particularly focusing on the suppression of REM sleep. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are known to significantly suppress REM sleep. This effect is due to the increased serotonin levels in the synapse, which inhibits the neuronal activity responsible for REM sleep. While other medications can affect sleep, the REM-suppressing effect is most pronounced with SSRIs. Beta-blockers can sometimes disrupt sleep but don’t characteristically suppress REM. Benzodiazepines decrease sleep latency and increase total sleep time but also suppress slow-wave sleep and REM sleep to a lesser extent than SSRIs. Antihistamines can cause drowsiness, but their impact on REM sleep is not as significant or consistent as that of SSRIs. Therefore, the most likely medication to cause a significant reduction in REM sleep is an SSRI.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
A 28-year-old female presents with a chief complaint of excessive daytime sleepiness for the past year. She denies any episodes of cataplexy, sleep paralysis, or hypnagogic hallucinations. She reports sleeping approximately 7-8 hours per night and does not feel refreshed upon awakening. Polysomnography is normal, with no evidence of sleep apnea or other sleep disorders. A subsequent Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) reveals a mean sleep latency of 6 minutes and one sleep-onset REM period (SOREMP). Based on these findings, what is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Correct
The question focuses on the differential diagnosis of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS) and the distinguishing features of narcolepsy type 2 (NT2) versus idiopathic hypersomnia (IH). The explanation requires a thorough understanding of the diagnostic criteria for both disorders, as outlined in the ICSD-3. Both NT2 and IH present with EDS, but key differences lie in the presence of cataplexy, MSLT findings, and the duration of sleep. NT2 is characterized by EDS, a mean sleep latency of ≤ 8 minutes on the MSLT, and ≥ 2 SOREMPs, but *without* cataplexy. IH, on the other hand, also presents with EDS but typically involves prolonged sleep duration (often > 10 hours) or difficulty awakening from sleep (“sleep drunkenness”). While the MSLT in IH may show short sleep latency, it usually does not include ≥ 2 SOREMPs. Furthermore, IH is *not* associated with cataplexy. The patient in this scenario has EDS, no cataplexy, a short sleep latency on the MSLT (6 minutes), and only one SOREMP. This combination of findings is *not* consistent with NT2 (which requires ≥ 2 SOREMPs) or IH (which typically involves prolonged sleep or significant sleep inertia). The most likely diagnosis, given the available information, is therefore insufficient evidence to diagnose either NT2 or IH, requiring further investigation.
Incorrect
The question focuses on the differential diagnosis of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS) and the distinguishing features of narcolepsy type 2 (NT2) versus idiopathic hypersomnia (IH). The explanation requires a thorough understanding of the diagnostic criteria for both disorders, as outlined in the ICSD-3. Both NT2 and IH present with EDS, but key differences lie in the presence of cataplexy, MSLT findings, and the duration of sleep. NT2 is characterized by EDS, a mean sleep latency of ≤ 8 minutes on the MSLT, and ≥ 2 SOREMPs, but *without* cataplexy. IH, on the other hand, also presents with EDS but typically involves prolonged sleep duration (often > 10 hours) or difficulty awakening from sleep (“sleep drunkenness”). While the MSLT in IH may show short sleep latency, it usually does not include ≥ 2 SOREMPs. Furthermore, IH is *not* associated with cataplexy. The patient in this scenario has EDS, no cataplexy, a short sleep latency on the MSLT (6 minutes), and only one SOREMP. This combination of findings is *not* consistent with NT2 (which requires ≥ 2 SOREMPs) or IH (which typically involves prolonged sleep or significant sleep inertia). The most likely diagnosis, given the available information, is therefore insufficient evidence to diagnose either NT2 or IH, requiring further investigation.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
A 68-year-old male is referred to a sleep clinic by his neurologist due to concerns about dream enactment behavior. His wife reports that he frequently yells, punches, and kicks during sleep, sometimes injuring himself or her. These episodes occur several times a week and seem to coincide with vivid, action-filled dreams. He denies any daytime sleepiness or cataplexy. A neurological examination is unremarkable. Based on the clinical presentation, the neurologist suspects REM Sleep Behavior Disorder (RBD). Which polysomnographic finding would be most supportive of this diagnosis and differentiate it from other potential sleep disorders?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient presenting with symptoms suggestive of REM Sleep Behavior Disorder (RBD), particularly the acting out of dreams. While other sleep disorders might involve abnormal movements or vocalizations during sleep, the key differentiator for RBD is the loss of normal muscle atonia during REM sleep, leading to dream enactment. Polysomnography (PSG) is crucial for confirming the diagnosis. During PSG, specific findings are expected in RBD. The most characteristic finding is REM sleep without atonia (RWA), meaning that the EMG activity (typically chin EMG) is elevated or shows excessive phasic activity during REM sleep. This contrasts with normal REM sleep, where muscle activity is suppressed. While sleep apnea can coexist, it’s not the defining feature for RBD diagnosis. Similarly, alpha-delta sleep is more characteristic of non-restorative sleep or certain pain conditions, not RBD. Increased sleep latency would point more towards insomnia or circadian rhythm disorders. Therefore, the presence of REM sleep without atonia is the most specific finding to confirm the suspected diagnosis of RBD. The absence of muscle atonia during REM allows the patient to physically act out their dreams. This is a critical diagnostic criterion for RBD, differentiating it from other parasomnias or sleep disorders. The diagnosis cannot be made without PSG evidence of RWA.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient presenting with symptoms suggestive of REM Sleep Behavior Disorder (RBD), particularly the acting out of dreams. While other sleep disorders might involve abnormal movements or vocalizations during sleep, the key differentiator for RBD is the loss of normal muscle atonia during REM sleep, leading to dream enactment. Polysomnography (PSG) is crucial for confirming the diagnosis. During PSG, specific findings are expected in RBD. The most characteristic finding is REM sleep without atonia (RWA), meaning that the EMG activity (typically chin EMG) is elevated or shows excessive phasic activity during REM sleep. This contrasts with normal REM sleep, where muscle activity is suppressed. While sleep apnea can coexist, it’s not the defining feature for RBD diagnosis. Similarly, alpha-delta sleep is more characteristic of non-restorative sleep or certain pain conditions, not RBD. Increased sleep latency would point more towards insomnia or circadian rhythm disorders. Therefore, the presence of REM sleep without atonia is the most specific finding to confirm the suspected diagnosis of RBD. The absence of muscle atonia during REM allows the patient to physically act out their dreams. This is a critical diagnostic criterion for RBD, differentiating it from other parasomnias or sleep disorders. The diagnosis cannot be made without PSG evidence of RWA.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
A primary care physician offers home sleep apnea testing (HSAT) to patients who report symptoms suggestive of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). The physician provides the HSAT results directly to the patients without a formal sleep medicine consultation or interpretation by a sleep specialist. The physician then initiates treatment based solely on the HSAT results. Which ethical concern is MOST directly raised by this practice?
Correct
The question addresses the ethical considerations surrounding home sleep apnea testing (HSAT). The core ethical principle at play is ensuring patient safety and appropriate medical oversight. While HSAT can be a convenient and cost-effective tool for diagnosing OSA, it is crucial that the results are interpreted by a qualified sleep specialist who can consider the patient’s overall medical history, perform a physical examination, and rule out other potential causes of their symptoms. This ensures that the diagnosis is accurate and that the patient receives appropriate treatment recommendations. Simply providing HSAT results to the patient without further evaluation or interpretation could lead to misdiagnosis, inappropriate treatment, or delayed diagnosis of other underlying conditions. The American Academy of Sleep Medicine (AASM) emphasizes the importance of physician oversight in the use of HSAT to ensure patient safety and quality of care.
Incorrect
The question addresses the ethical considerations surrounding home sleep apnea testing (HSAT). The core ethical principle at play is ensuring patient safety and appropriate medical oversight. While HSAT can be a convenient and cost-effective tool for diagnosing OSA, it is crucial that the results are interpreted by a qualified sleep specialist who can consider the patient’s overall medical history, perform a physical examination, and rule out other potential causes of their symptoms. This ensures that the diagnosis is accurate and that the patient receives appropriate treatment recommendations. Simply providing HSAT results to the patient without further evaluation or interpretation could lead to misdiagnosis, inappropriate treatment, or delayed diagnosis of other underlying conditions. The American Academy of Sleep Medicine (AASM) emphasizes the importance of physician oversight in the use of HSAT to ensure patient safety and quality of care.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Dr. Ramirez, a board-certified sleep medicine physician, is consulted via a telemedicine platform by a new patient, Mrs. Johnson, who resides in a different state. Mrs. Johnson reports a long-standing history of chronic insomnia, previously diagnosed and treated with zolpidem by her primary care physician before she moved. She states she has run out of her medication and requests a refill from Dr. Ramirez. Mrs. Johnson provides records from her previous physician documenting her diagnosis and treatment history. Dr. Ramirez is licensed in her own state and is authorized to practice telemedicine. Considering the Ryan Haight Online Pharmacy Consumer Protection Act, ethical guidelines for prescribing controlled substances, and the variability of state laws, what is the most appropriate course of action for Dr. Ramirez?
Correct
The question explores the complex interplay between legal frameworks, ethical considerations, and clinical decision-making in sleep medicine, specifically regarding the prescription of controlled substances for insomnia. It requires a deep understanding of the Ryan Haight Online Pharmacy Consumer Protection Act, which regulates online pharmacies and the prescription of controlled substances via the internet. It also necessitates knowledge of the ethical obligations of physicians to ensure patient safety and prevent drug diversion, as well as the potential impact of state laws and regulations on prescribing practices. The correct approach involves recognizing that while telemedicine has expanded access to care, the Ryan Haight Act imposes specific requirements for prescribing controlled substances, including at least one in-person medical evaluation. Even if a patient has a pre-existing diagnosis and has been previously treated, a new prescription through telemedicine still falls under the purview of this act. Furthermore, physicians have an ethical duty to assess the risk of drug diversion and abuse, and to comply with all applicable state laws and regulations. Therefore, prescribing a controlled substance without an in-person evaluation, even with a pre-existing diagnosis and prior treatment, would likely violate the Ryan Haight Act and potentially breach ethical obligations. The physician must prioritize patient safety, adhere to legal requirements, and consider the potential for drug diversion.
Incorrect
The question explores the complex interplay between legal frameworks, ethical considerations, and clinical decision-making in sleep medicine, specifically regarding the prescription of controlled substances for insomnia. It requires a deep understanding of the Ryan Haight Online Pharmacy Consumer Protection Act, which regulates online pharmacies and the prescription of controlled substances via the internet. It also necessitates knowledge of the ethical obligations of physicians to ensure patient safety and prevent drug diversion, as well as the potential impact of state laws and regulations on prescribing practices. The correct approach involves recognizing that while telemedicine has expanded access to care, the Ryan Haight Act imposes specific requirements for prescribing controlled substances, including at least one in-person medical evaluation. Even if a patient has a pre-existing diagnosis and has been previously treated, a new prescription through telemedicine still falls under the purview of this act. Furthermore, physicians have an ethical duty to assess the risk of drug diversion and abuse, and to comply with all applicable state laws and regulations. Therefore, prescribing a controlled substance without an in-person evaluation, even with a pre-existing diagnosis and prior treatment, would likely violate the Ryan Haight Act and potentially breach ethical obligations. The physician must prioritize patient safety, adhere to legal requirements, and consider the potential for drug diversion.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
A 68-year-old male presents for polysomnography to evaluate excessive daytime sleepiness. His medical history is significant for a stroke three years prior that affected the pontine region. Polysomnography reveals a normal sleep latency and sleep efficiency. However, during REM sleep, the patient exhibits frequent prolonged hypopneas with significant oxygen desaturations, despite clear respiratory effort observed on the chest and abdominal belts. The AHI is elevated only during REM sleep. The technologist notes that arousals from these REM-related respiratory events are infrequent and often incomplete, with only a brief change in EEG frequency before returning to REM. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism contributing to the patient’s REM-related hypopneas and desaturations?
Correct
The core issue revolves around the complex interplay between sleep architecture, respiratory events, and the compensatory mechanisms within the central nervous system (CNS), particularly in the context of REM sleep. REM sleep is characterized by muscle atonia, making individuals highly susceptible to respiratory events like apneas and hypopneas if underlying anatomical or neurological vulnerabilities exist. The CNS normally responds to these events with arousals to restore adequate ventilation. However, the effectiveness of these arousals can be significantly compromised by factors such as blunted chemosensitivity, reduced respiratory drive, or the presence of co-existing neurological conditions that impair arousal pathways. In this scenario, the patient’s history of a prior stroke is crucial. A stroke can damage areas of the brain responsible for respiratory control or arousal mechanisms. Therefore, even though the patient may be attempting to breathe, the brain’s ability to trigger a full arousal from REM sleep in response to hypoxemia or hypercapnia is diminished. This results in prolonged respiratory events and significant oxygen desaturations. The fact that the respiratory effort is present indicates that the respiratory muscles are still functioning, and the problem isn’t primarily a failure of the respiratory pump itself. Instead, the issue is the impaired CNS response to the respiratory challenge. The brain is not effectively signaling the body to wake up and restore normal breathing patterns. This is a critical distinction, as it guides the management approach. Simply increasing respiratory support might not be sufficient if the underlying problem is the blunted arousal response. Therefore, the most likely underlying mechanism is a compromised central nervous system arousal response secondary to the prior stroke, leading to ineffective compensation for REM-related respiratory events. The desaturations during REM are not simply due to obstructive events, but a failure of the brain to properly respond to and terminate those events.
Incorrect
The core issue revolves around the complex interplay between sleep architecture, respiratory events, and the compensatory mechanisms within the central nervous system (CNS), particularly in the context of REM sleep. REM sleep is characterized by muscle atonia, making individuals highly susceptible to respiratory events like apneas and hypopneas if underlying anatomical or neurological vulnerabilities exist. The CNS normally responds to these events with arousals to restore adequate ventilation. However, the effectiveness of these arousals can be significantly compromised by factors such as blunted chemosensitivity, reduced respiratory drive, or the presence of co-existing neurological conditions that impair arousal pathways. In this scenario, the patient’s history of a prior stroke is crucial. A stroke can damage areas of the brain responsible for respiratory control or arousal mechanisms. Therefore, even though the patient may be attempting to breathe, the brain’s ability to trigger a full arousal from REM sleep in response to hypoxemia or hypercapnia is diminished. This results in prolonged respiratory events and significant oxygen desaturations. The fact that the respiratory effort is present indicates that the respiratory muscles are still functioning, and the problem isn’t primarily a failure of the respiratory pump itself. Instead, the issue is the impaired CNS response to the respiratory challenge. The brain is not effectively signaling the body to wake up and restore normal breathing patterns. This is a critical distinction, as it guides the management approach. Simply increasing respiratory support might not be sufficient if the underlying problem is the blunted arousal response. Therefore, the most likely underlying mechanism is a compromised central nervous system arousal response secondary to the prior stroke, leading to ineffective compensation for REM-related respiratory events. The desaturations during REM are not simply due to obstructive events, but a failure of the brain to properly respond to and terminate those events.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
A 52-year-old male with a 10-year history of well-managed depression and generalized anxiety disorder presents to your sleep clinic. He reports increasing daytime fatigue, difficulty concentrating, and morning headaches over the past 6 months. His bed partner reports loud snoring and witnessed apneas. A polysomnogram confirms a diagnosis of moderate obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) with an AHI of 22 events/hour. The patient is started on CPAP therapy. Which of the following statements BEST describes the expected impact of CPAP therapy on his pre-existing depression and anxiety, and the MOST appropriate management approach?
Correct
The question centers on the complex interplay between sleep disorders, specifically obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), and pre-existing mental health conditions, particularly depression and anxiety. The scenario presents a patient with a history of depression and anxiety who is now suspected of having OSA. The challenge lies in understanding how OSA can exacerbate these pre-existing mental health conditions and, more importantly, how the treatment of OSA can impact the management of these comorbid conditions. OSA can lead to fragmented sleep, intermittent hypoxia, and sleep deprivation, all of which can negatively impact mood regulation and cognitive function. These physiological disturbances can worsen symptoms of depression and anxiety. Furthermore, the psychological distress associated with living with a chronic condition like OSA can also contribute to increased anxiety and depressive symptoms. The key to answering this question correctly is recognizing that effective treatment of OSA, such as CPAP therapy, can improve sleep quality, reduce hypoxia, and restore normal sleep architecture. These improvements can lead to a reduction in depressive and anxiety symptoms. However, it is also crucial to acknowledge that CPAP therapy is not a standalone treatment for mental health conditions. Patients may still require ongoing mental health support, such as therapy or medication, to manage their depression and anxiety effectively. Furthermore, the question highlights the importance of considering adherence to CPAP therapy, as poor adherence can limit the potential benefits of OSA treatment on mental health outcomes. Therefore, the most comprehensive approach involves addressing both the OSA and the underlying mental health conditions through a combination of treatments. The question also tests the understanding of the limitations of treating OSA alone without addressing the underlying mental health issues.
Incorrect
The question centers on the complex interplay between sleep disorders, specifically obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), and pre-existing mental health conditions, particularly depression and anxiety. The scenario presents a patient with a history of depression and anxiety who is now suspected of having OSA. The challenge lies in understanding how OSA can exacerbate these pre-existing mental health conditions and, more importantly, how the treatment of OSA can impact the management of these comorbid conditions. OSA can lead to fragmented sleep, intermittent hypoxia, and sleep deprivation, all of which can negatively impact mood regulation and cognitive function. These physiological disturbances can worsen symptoms of depression and anxiety. Furthermore, the psychological distress associated with living with a chronic condition like OSA can also contribute to increased anxiety and depressive symptoms. The key to answering this question correctly is recognizing that effective treatment of OSA, such as CPAP therapy, can improve sleep quality, reduce hypoxia, and restore normal sleep architecture. These improvements can lead to a reduction in depressive and anxiety symptoms. However, it is also crucial to acknowledge that CPAP therapy is not a standalone treatment for mental health conditions. Patients may still require ongoing mental health support, such as therapy or medication, to manage their depression and anxiety effectively. Furthermore, the question highlights the importance of considering adherence to CPAP therapy, as poor adherence can limit the potential benefits of OSA treatment on mental health outcomes. Therefore, the most comprehensive approach involves addressing both the OSA and the underlying mental health conditions through a combination of treatments. The question also tests the understanding of the limitations of treating OSA alone without addressing the underlying mental health issues.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
A 68-year-old male with a history of COPD (GOLD stage III) and a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to your sleep clinic with complaints of excessive daytime sleepiness and snoring. His Epworth Sleepiness Scale score is 16. Overnight polysomnography reveals an AHI of 35 events/hour, with significant oxygen desaturations and an elevated PaCO2 of 48 mmHg. He is diagnosed with overlap syndrome (OSA and COPD). Considering the potential risks and benefits of various treatment modalities, which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial therapeutic intervention for this patient? Assume the patient has no other significant comorbidities and is adherent to his existing COPD medications. The patient also denies any symptoms of heart failure or peripheral edema.
Correct
The question probes the intricacies of managing patients with co-existing Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA) and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD), often termed the “overlap syndrome.” The central issue is the potential for nocturnal hypoventilation and hypercapnia, which are exacerbated in these patients due to the combined effects of upper airway obstruction and impaired respiratory mechanics. CPAP is the first-line treatment for OSA, but in overlap syndrome, it can sometimes worsen hypercapnia if not carefully titrated. The increased positive pressure can splint open the upper airway, addressing the OSA component, but it can also increase the physiological dead space and potentially reduce alveolar ventilation, particularly in patients with significant COPD and air trapping. Volume-assured pressure support (VAPS) or bilevel ventilation (BiPAP) offers inspiratory pressure support and expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP). The pressure support component helps to augment ventilation, addressing the underlying hypoventilation often present in COPD. The EPAP treats the obstructive component, similar to CPAP. This dual action makes it a more suitable initial choice for patients with overlap syndrome, especially when hypercapnia is a concern. Oxygen therapy alone will not address the underlying upper airway obstruction in OSA or the hypoventilation in COPD; it only increases the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP) is a surgical procedure to widen the upper airway, but it does not address the underlying COPD and can be ineffective in severe OSA. Furthermore, surgery should be considered after failure of conservative treatments such as PAP therapy. Therefore, the best initial approach is to consider non-invasive ventilation (NIV) with pressure support to address both OSA and COPD components of the patient’s condition.
Incorrect
The question probes the intricacies of managing patients with co-existing Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA) and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD), often termed the “overlap syndrome.” The central issue is the potential for nocturnal hypoventilation and hypercapnia, which are exacerbated in these patients due to the combined effects of upper airway obstruction and impaired respiratory mechanics. CPAP is the first-line treatment for OSA, but in overlap syndrome, it can sometimes worsen hypercapnia if not carefully titrated. The increased positive pressure can splint open the upper airway, addressing the OSA component, but it can also increase the physiological dead space and potentially reduce alveolar ventilation, particularly in patients with significant COPD and air trapping. Volume-assured pressure support (VAPS) or bilevel ventilation (BiPAP) offers inspiratory pressure support and expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP). The pressure support component helps to augment ventilation, addressing the underlying hypoventilation often present in COPD. The EPAP treats the obstructive component, similar to CPAP. This dual action makes it a more suitable initial choice for patients with overlap syndrome, especially when hypercapnia is a concern. Oxygen therapy alone will not address the underlying upper airway obstruction in OSA or the hypoventilation in COPD; it only increases the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP) is a surgical procedure to widen the upper airway, but it does not address the underlying COPD and can be ineffective in severe OSA. Furthermore, surgery should be considered after failure of conservative treatments such as PAP therapy. Therefore, the best initial approach is to consider non-invasive ventilation (NIV) with pressure support to address both OSA and COPD components of the patient’s condition.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
A sleep specialist is evaluating a 4-year-old child with mild bedtime resistance and occasional night wakings. The parents insist on obtaining actigraphy to “quantify” the child’s sleep patterns, despite the specialist’s assessment that behavioral interventions are likely sufficient. The parents state they want the data to ensure they are doing everything possible to address their child’s sleep. Which of the following statements BEST reflects the ethical considerations the sleep specialist MUST consider when responding to the parents’ request?
Correct
The question examines the ethical considerations surrounding the use of actigraphy in pediatric sleep medicine, specifically when parental requests conflict with clinical judgment. The core ethical principles at play are beneficence (acting in the best interest of the child), non-maleficence (avoiding harm), respect for autonomy (recognizing the parents’ role in making decisions for their child), and justice (ensuring equitable access to care). In this scenario, the parents are requesting actigraphy primarily for their own reassurance and convenience, rather than based on a clear clinical indication. While actigraphy can be a valuable tool in assessing sleep patterns, it is not always necessary or appropriate. Over-reliance on technology can sometimes lead to unnecessary anxiety and medicalization of normal variations in sleep behavior. The sleep specialist has a responsibility to carefully evaluate the clinical necessity of actigraphy in this particular case. If the child’s sleep problems are mild and amenable to behavioral interventions, and if the parents are primarily seeking reassurance, then it may be ethically justifiable to decline the request for actigraphy. Instead, the specialist could provide education and counseling on normal sleep development, sleep hygiene practices, and behavioral strategies for addressing the child’s sleep problems. However, if the child’s sleep problems are more severe or persistent, or if there are concerns about underlying medical or psychological conditions, then actigraphy may be warranted, even if the parents’ initial motivation is primarily for reassurance. In such cases, the specialist should clearly explain the rationale for actigraphy, its potential benefits and limitations, and how the results will be used to guide treatment decisions. Open communication and shared decision-making are essential to ensure that the parents’ concerns are addressed while also upholding the child’s best interests. Furthermore, the sleep specialist should be mindful of the potential for cultural or socioeconomic factors to influence the parents’ beliefs and expectations regarding sleep and medical interventions.
Incorrect
The question examines the ethical considerations surrounding the use of actigraphy in pediatric sleep medicine, specifically when parental requests conflict with clinical judgment. The core ethical principles at play are beneficence (acting in the best interest of the child), non-maleficence (avoiding harm), respect for autonomy (recognizing the parents’ role in making decisions for their child), and justice (ensuring equitable access to care). In this scenario, the parents are requesting actigraphy primarily for their own reassurance and convenience, rather than based on a clear clinical indication. While actigraphy can be a valuable tool in assessing sleep patterns, it is not always necessary or appropriate. Over-reliance on technology can sometimes lead to unnecessary anxiety and medicalization of normal variations in sleep behavior. The sleep specialist has a responsibility to carefully evaluate the clinical necessity of actigraphy in this particular case. If the child’s sleep problems are mild and amenable to behavioral interventions, and if the parents are primarily seeking reassurance, then it may be ethically justifiable to decline the request for actigraphy. Instead, the specialist could provide education and counseling on normal sleep development, sleep hygiene practices, and behavioral strategies for addressing the child’s sleep problems. However, if the child’s sleep problems are more severe or persistent, or if there are concerns about underlying medical or psychological conditions, then actigraphy may be warranted, even if the parents’ initial motivation is primarily for reassurance. In such cases, the specialist should clearly explain the rationale for actigraphy, its potential benefits and limitations, and how the results will be used to guide treatment decisions. Open communication and shared decision-making are essential to ensure that the parents’ concerns are addressed while also upholding the child’s best interests. Furthermore, the sleep specialist should be mindful of the potential for cultural or socioeconomic factors to influence the parents’ beliefs and expectations regarding sleep and medical interventions.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
A 45-year-old patient presents to a sleep clinic complaining of chronic insomnia for the past 5 years. The patient reports difficulty falling asleep and frequent awakenings throughout the night. During the day, the patient experiences excessive sleepiness and relies on caffeine and prescribed stimulants to maintain alertness and function at work. The patient acknowledges that the stimulants help them stay awake during the day but worsen their insomnia at night. Polysomnography reveals significantly reduced sleep efficiency, increased sleep latency, and frequent arousals. Given this clinical presentation, which of the following physiological factors is most likely exerting the strongest influence on this patient’s disrupted sleep-wake cycle?
Correct
The core issue revolves around understanding how the brain prioritizes different homeostatic sleep drives when faced with conflicting signals. The scenario presents a patient with chronic insomnia who consistently uses stimulants to counteract excessive daytime sleepiness. This creates a complex interplay between the homeostatic sleep drive (the body’s natural need for sleep that accumulates with wakefulness), the circadian rhythm (the body’s internal clock regulating sleep-wake cycles), and the effects of stimulants. Stimulants artificially promote wakefulness by increasing dopamine and norepinephrine levels, effectively masking the underlying sleep debt. While they may temporarily alleviate daytime sleepiness, they do not address the root cause of the insomnia or the accumulating homeostatic sleep drive. The brain attempts to maintain a balance, but the artificially induced wakefulness interferes with this process. The homeostatic sleep drive continues to build during periods of stimulant use, even though the patient may not feel as sleepy. When the effects of the stimulant wear off, the accumulated sleep pressure manifests as an intensified drive for sleep. However, the chronic insomnia disrupts the normal sleep architecture and sleep regulation, preventing the patient from achieving restorative sleep. The circadian rhythm also plays a crucial role. It regulates the timing of sleep and wakefulness, influencing the release of hormones like melatonin. Chronic stimulant use and irregular sleep patterns can disrupt the circadian rhythm, further exacerbating the insomnia. In this scenario, the homeostatic sleep drive is likely the strongest influence on the patient’s sleep patterns. Despite the stimulant use and circadian rhythm disruptions, the body’s fundamental need for sleep continues to accumulate. This accumulated sleep pressure eventually overrides the effects of the stimulants, leading to an intense drive for sleep when the stimulant effects subside. The insomnia, however, prevents the patient from fully satisfying this drive, perpetuating the cycle of stimulant use and sleep deprivation.
Incorrect
The core issue revolves around understanding how the brain prioritizes different homeostatic sleep drives when faced with conflicting signals. The scenario presents a patient with chronic insomnia who consistently uses stimulants to counteract excessive daytime sleepiness. This creates a complex interplay between the homeostatic sleep drive (the body’s natural need for sleep that accumulates with wakefulness), the circadian rhythm (the body’s internal clock regulating sleep-wake cycles), and the effects of stimulants. Stimulants artificially promote wakefulness by increasing dopamine and norepinephrine levels, effectively masking the underlying sleep debt. While they may temporarily alleviate daytime sleepiness, they do not address the root cause of the insomnia or the accumulating homeostatic sleep drive. The brain attempts to maintain a balance, but the artificially induced wakefulness interferes with this process. The homeostatic sleep drive continues to build during periods of stimulant use, even though the patient may not feel as sleepy. When the effects of the stimulant wear off, the accumulated sleep pressure manifests as an intensified drive for sleep. However, the chronic insomnia disrupts the normal sleep architecture and sleep regulation, preventing the patient from achieving restorative sleep. The circadian rhythm also plays a crucial role. It regulates the timing of sleep and wakefulness, influencing the release of hormones like melatonin. Chronic stimulant use and irregular sleep patterns can disrupt the circadian rhythm, further exacerbating the insomnia. In this scenario, the homeostatic sleep drive is likely the strongest influence on the patient’s sleep patterns. Despite the stimulant use and circadian rhythm disruptions, the body’s fundamental need for sleep continues to accumulate. This accumulated sleep pressure eventually overrides the effects of the stimulants, leading to an intense drive for sleep when the stimulant effects subside. The insomnia, however, prevents the patient from fully satisfying this drive, perpetuating the cycle of stimulant use and sleep deprivation.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
A 52-year-old male presents to the sleep clinic complaining of increased daytime fatigue despite maintaining a consistent sleep schedule. He was recently started on a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI) for treatment of a newly diagnosed anxiety disorder. A polysomnogram (PSG) is ordered to evaluate his sleep architecture. Considering the effects of SSRIs on neurotransmitter regulation and sleep stages, which of the following PSG findings would be most consistent with the recent initiation of SSRI therapy in this patient?
Correct
The key to answering this question lies in understanding the interplay between sleep stages, neurotransmitter activity, and the effects of specific medications. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) are known to impact sleep architecture, primarily by suppressing REM sleep. This suppression occurs because SSRIs increase serotonin levels in the synaptic cleft, which, in turn, affects the balance of neurotransmitters involved in sleep regulation. While serotonin is generally associated with promoting sleep, its excessive presence, especially during REM sleep, can disrupt the normal progression of sleep stages. REM sleep is characterized by muscle atonia, vivid dreaming, and specific EEG patterns. The pontine reticular formation plays a crucial role in generating and maintaining REM sleep. Acetylcholine is a key neurotransmitter that promotes REM sleep by activating neurons in the pontine reticular formation. When serotonin levels are elevated due to SSRI use, the balance between serotonin and acetylcholine is altered. The increased serotonin activity can inhibit the cholinergic neurons in the pontine reticular formation, thereby reducing the intensity and duration of REM sleep. This inhibition can manifest as a decrease in REM latency (the time it takes to enter REM sleep after sleep onset) and a reduction in the overall percentage of REM sleep during the night. Furthermore, the chronic use of SSRIs can lead to compensatory mechanisms within the brain. The brain attempts to restore the balance of neurotransmitters by downregulating serotonin receptors or altering the sensitivity of cholinergic neurons. This adaptation can result in a gradual tolerance to the REM-suppressing effects of SSRIs. However, even with tolerance, the initial impact of SSRIs on REM sleep is significant and can be observed in polysomnography recordings. The other sleep stages, such as NREM stages 1, 2, and 3, are less directly affected by SSRIs, although sleep fragmentation and increased wakefulness after sleep onset can occur as secondary effects of the altered sleep architecture.
Incorrect
The key to answering this question lies in understanding the interplay between sleep stages, neurotransmitter activity, and the effects of specific medications. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) are known to impact sleep architecture, primarily by suppressing REM sleep. This suppression occurs because SSRIs increase serotonin levels in the synaptic cleft, which, in turn, affects the balance of neurotransmitters involved in sleep regulation. While serotonin is generally associated with promoting sleep, its excessive presence, especially during REM sleep, can disrupt the normal progression of sleep stages. REM sleep is characterized by muscle atonia, vivid dreaming, and specific EEG patterns. The pontine reticular formation plays a crucial role in generating and maintaining REM sleep. Acetylcholine is a key neurotransmitter that promotes REM sleep by activating neurons in the pontine reticular formation. When serotonin levels are elevated due to SSRI use, the balance between serotonin and acetylcholine is altered. The increased serotonin activity can inhibit the cholinergic neurons in the pontine reticular formation, thereby reducing the intensity and duration of REM sleep. This inhibition can manifest as a decrease in REM latency (the time it takes to enter REM sleep after sleep onset) and a reduction in the overall percentage of REM sleep during the night. Furthermore, the chronic use of SSRIs can lead to compensatory mechanisms within the brain. The brain attempts to restore the balance of neurotransmitters by downregulating serotonin receptors or altering the sensitivity of cholinergic neurons. This adaptation can result in a gradual tolerance to the REM-suppressing effects of SSRIs. However, even with tolerance, the initial impact of SSRIs on REM sleep is significant and can be observed in polysomnography recordings. The other sleep stages, such as NREM stages 1, 2, and 3, are less directly affected by SSRIs, although sleep fragmentation and increased wakefulness after sleep onset can occur as secondary effects of the altered sleep architecture.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
A 35-year-old male diagnosed with Narcolepsy Type 1 (NT1) reports a significant increase in daytime sleepiness after taking an over-the-counter antihistamine, diphenhydramine, for a mild allergic reaction. He states that the usual dose made him feel significantly more tired than it did before his narcolepsy diagnosis. He denies any changes in his other medications or sleep schedule. Considering the underlying pathophysiology of NT1 and the mechanism of action of diphenhydramine, which of the following best explains this patient’s heightened sensitivity to the sedating effects of the antihistamine?
Correct
The core issue revolves around the interplay between orexin deficiency, narcolepsy type 1 (NT1), and the compensatory mechanisms that the brain employs to maintain wakefulness. In NT1, the loss of orexin neurons in the hypothalamus leads to a destabilization of the sleep-wake cycle. The brain, attempting to counteract this instability, upregulates other wake-promoting neurotransmitter systems. Histamine, produced by tuberomammillary nucleus (TMN) neurons, is a key wake-promoting neurotransmitter. In the absence of orexin’s stabilizing influence, the histaminergic system becomes more susceptible to disruptions. A histamine H1 receptor antagonist, like diphenhydramine, further suppresses this already compromised wake-promoting system, leading to a disproportionately severe increase in daytime sleepiness. This is because the brain is more reliant on the remaining wake-promoting signals, and blocking histamine has a larger impact than it would in someone with a fully functional orexin system. Furthermore, the homeostatic sleep drive, regulated by adenosine, is also affected. Orexin normally inhibits adenosine accumulation during wakefulness. In NT1, the reduced orexin levels lead to increased adenosine, further contributing to sleepiness. The increased sensitivity to H1 antagonists in NT1 is not primarily due to altered receptor affinity or metabolism of the drug. It’s the functional consequence of the orexin deficiency and the brain’s reliance on alternative wake-promoting mechanisms. Therefore, the correct answer highlights the heightened sensitivity to histamine H1 receptor antagonism due to the loss of orexin neurons and the consequential reliance on other wake-promoting systems.
Incorrect
The core issue revolves around the interplay between orexin deficiency, narcolepsy type 1 (NT1), and the compensatory mechanisms that the brain employs to maintain wakefulness. In NT1, the loss of orexin neurons in the hypothalamus leads to a destabilization of the sleep-wake cycle. The brain, attempting to counteract this instability, upregulates other wake-promoting neurotransmitter systems. Histamine, produced by tuberomammillary nucleus (TMN) neurons, is a key wake-promoting neurotransmitter. In the absence of orexin’s stabilizing influence, the histaminergic system becomes more susceptible to disruptions. A histamine H1 receptor antagonist, like diphenhydramine, further suppresses this already compromised wake-promoting system, leading to a disproportionately severe increase in daytime sleepiness. This is because the brain is more reliant on the remaining wake-promoting signals, and blocking histamine has a larger impact than it would in someone with a fully functional orexin system. Furthermore, the homeostatic sleep drive, regulated by adenosine, is also affected. Orexin normally inhibits adenosine accumulation during wakefulness. In NT1, the reduced orexin levels lead to increased adenosine, further contributing to sleepiness. The increased sensitivity to H1 antagonists in NT1 is not primarily due to altered receptor affinity or metabolism of the drug. It’s the functional consequence of the orexin deficiency and the brain’s reliance on alternative wake-promoting mechanisms. Therefore, the correct answer highlights the heightened sensitivity to histamine H1 receptor antagonism due to the loss of orexin neurons and the consequential reliance on other wake-promoting systems.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
A 62-year-old male presents to your sleep clinic with a history of loud snoring, witnessed apneas, and excessive daytime sleepiness. A polysomnogram (PSG) confirms a diagnosis of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) with an Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) of 40 events/hour. He is subsequently started on continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) therapy. After a CPAP titration study, his AHI is reduced to 12 events/hour, but he continues to report persistent fatigue and his bed partner notes the persistence of apneas, albeit less frequent. A repeat PSG on CPAP reveals that the residual events are predominantly central apneas, with minimal obstructive events. The CPAP pressure is further increased, but the central apneas worsen. Given this clinical picture, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient’s sleep apnea?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with symptoms suggestive of both obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) and central sleep apnea (CSA). The key to differentiating and managing complex sleep apnea lies in understanding the underlying mechanisms of each condition and how they interact. Obstructive apneas are characterized by upper airway obstruction despite respiratory effort, while central apneas involve a lack of respiratory drive from the brain. The patient’s initial presentation with snoring and witnessed apneas points towards an obstructive component. However, the persistence of apneas after CPAP titration, particularly at higher pressures, suggests a central component has emerged. This phenomenon, where CPAP unmasks or exacerbates central apneas, is characteristic of complex sleep apnea (also known as treatment-emergent central sleep apnea). Adaptive servo-ventilation (ASV) is a treatment modality specifically designed to address central apneas. It works by providing ventilatory support that adapts to the patient’s breathing pattern, increasing ventilation when the patient’s respiratory effort is low and decreasing ventilation when the patient’s respiratory effort is high. This helps to stabilize breathing and reduce the frequency of central apneas. While BiPAP can provide pressure support, it is not as specifically tailored to central apneas as ASV. Increasing CPAP pressure further could worsen the central apneas. Hypoglossal nerve stimulation is a treatment option for OSA, but it does not address the central component of complex sleep apnea. Therefore, the most appropriate next step in managing this patient is to consider ASV therapy.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with symptoms suggestive of both obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) and central sleep apnea (CSA). The key to differentiating and managing complex sleep apnea lies in understanding the underlying mechanisms of each condition and how they interact. Obstructive apneas are characterized by upper airway obstruction despite respiratory effort, while central apneas involve a lack of respiratory drive from the brain. The patient’s initial presentation with snoring and witnessed apneas points towards an obstructive component. However, the persistence of apneas after CPAP titration, particularly at higher pressures, suggests a central component has emerged. This phenomenon, where CPAP unmasks or exacerbates central apneas, is characteristic of complex sleep apnea (also known as treatment-emergent central sleep apnea). Adaptive servo-ventilation (ASV) is a treatment modality specifically designed to address central apneas. It works by providing ventilatory support that adapts to the patient’s breathing pattern, increasing ventilation when the patient’s respiratory effort is low and decreasing ventilation when the patient’s respiratory effort is high. This helps to stabilize breathing and reduce the frequency of central apneas. While BiPAP can provide pressure support, it is not as specifically tailored to central apneas as ASV. Increasing CPAP pressure further could worsen the central apneas. Hypoglossal nerve stimulation is a treatment option for OSA, but it does not address the central component of complex sleep apnea. Therefore, the most appropriate next step in managing this patient is to consider ASV therapy.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
A 55-year-old male presents to the sleep clinic complaining of excessive daytime sleepiness. His bed partner reports loud snoring, witnessed apneas, and restless sleep. A full overnight polysomnogram (PSG) is performed. The PSG reveals the following: Total sleep time of 6 hours, 20 obstructive apneas, 30 hypopneas (all associated with ≥3% oxygen desaturation), and 10 central apneas. There were also 15 respiratory effort-related arousals (RERAs). Based on these PSG findings and adhering to the American Academy of Sleep Medicine (AASM) scoring guidelines, what is the patient’s Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI)? Assume all events meet the minimum duration criteria.
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with suspected OSA undergoing polysomnography (PSG). The key is to understand how different respiratory events are scored according to AASM guidelines and how these events contribute to the AHI. Hypopneas are defined by a ≥30% reduction in airflow from baseline, lasting at least 10 seconds, *associated with* either ≥3% oxygen desaturation *or* an arousal. Apneas are defined as a ≥90% reduction in airflow from baseline lasting at least 10 seconds. Central apneas are characterized by the absence of respiratory effort, while obstructive apneas show continued effort. The Respiratory Effort-Related Arousals (RERAs) are scored when there is increasing respiratory effort leading to arousal but not meeting criteria for apnea or hypopnea. The AHI is calculated as the total number of apneas and hypopneas per hour of sleep. The Respiratory Disturbance Index (RDI) includes apneas, hypopneas, and RERAs per hour of sleep. In this case, the patient had 20 obstructive apneas, 30 hypopneas (all with ≥3% desaturation), and 10 central apneas during 6 hours of total sleep time. The AHI is therefore calculated as (Total Apneas + Total Hypopneas) / Total Sleep Time. The total number of apneas is 20 (obstructive) + 10 (central) = 30 apneas. The total number of hypopneas is 30. Thus, the AHI = (30 apneas + 30 hypopneas) / 6 hours = 60/6 = 10 events/hour. The fact that the hypopneas were associated with ≥3% desaturation is important because, according to AASM guidelines, hypopneas must be associated with either ≥3% desaturation or arousal to be counted toward the AHI. If the hypopneas were not associated with either desaturation or arousal, they would not be included in the AHI calculation.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with suspected OSA undergoing polysomnography (PSG). The key is to understand how different respiratory events are scored according to AASM guidelines and how these events contribute to the AHI. Hypopneas are defined by a ≥30% reduction in airflow from baseline, lasting at least 10 seconds, *associated with* either ≥3% oxygen desaturation *or* an arousal. Apneas are defined as a ≥90% reduction in airflow from baseline lasting at least 10 seconds. Central apneas are characterized by the absence of respiratory effort, while obstructive apneas show continued effort. The Respiratory Effort-Related Arousals (RERAs) are scored when there is increasing respiratory effort leading to arousal but not meeting criteria for apnea or hypopnea. The AHI is calculated as the total number of apneas and hypopneas per hour of sleep. The Respiratory Disturbance Index (RDI) includes apneas, hypopneas, and RERAs per hour of sleep. In this case, the patient had 20 obstructive apneas, 30 hypopneas (all with ≥3% desaturation), and 10 central apneas during 6 hours of total sleep time. The AHI is therefore calculated as (Total Apneas + Total Hypopneas) / Total Sleep Time. The total number of apneas is 20 (obstructive) + 10 (central) = 30 apneas. The total number of hypopneas is 30. Thus, the AHI = (30 apneas + 30 hypopneas) / 6 hours = 60/6 = 10 events/hour. The fact that the hypopneas were associated with ≥3% desaturation is important because, according to AASM guidelines, hypopneas must be associated with either ≥3% desaturation or arousal to be counted toward the AHI. If the hypopneas were not associated with either desaturation or arousal, they would not be included in the AHI calculation.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
A 68-year-old male with a history of depression treated with sertraline (an SSRI) presents to your sleep clinic with his wife. She reports that over the past six months, he has been increasingly acting out his dreams, including yelling, punching, and kicking in his sleep. These episodes occur several times a week, and she is concerned for his safety and hers. He reports vivid dreams but denies any daytime sleepiness or cognitive impairment. A neurological examination is unremarkable. Considering the patient’s presentation and medication history, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient exhibiting signs of REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD) despite being on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). SSRIs can sometimes paradoxically exacerbate RBD symptoms in susceptible individuals. The most appropriate next step involves a comprehensive evaluation to confirm the diagnosis and assess the severity of the RBD. This includes a polysomnogram (PSG) with extended EEG monitoring and audio-video recording. The PSG is crucial for identifying REM sleep without atonia, a hallmark of RBD, and for ruling out other potential sleep disorders or nocturnal events that might mimic RBD. Reducing the SSRI dosage might be considered, but it should be done cautiously and under close medical supervision, as abrupt discontinuation can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potential worsening of the underlying psychiatric condition. Adding melatonin can be helpful in some cases of RBD, but it’s not the immediate next step before confirming the diagnosis. Initiating clonazepam, a benzodiazepine commonly used for RBD, is premature without definitive diagnostic confirmation and carries risks of side effects, including daytime sedation and dependence. Therefore, a PSG with extended EEG and audio-video recording is the most prudent initial step to accurately diagnose and characterize the patient’s condition before implementing specific treatments. The PSG will provide objective data to guide further management decisions, ensuring patient safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient exhibiting signs of REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD) despite being on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). SSRIs can sometimes paradoxically exacerbate RBD symptoms in susceptible individuals. The most appropriate next step involves a comprehensive evaluation to confirm the diagnosis and assess the severity of the RBD. This includes a polysomnogram (PSG) with extended EEG monitoring and audio-video recording. The PSG is crucial for identifying REM sleep without atonia, a hallmark of RBD, and for ruling out other potential sleep disorders or nocturnal events that might mimic RBD. Reducing the SSRI dosage might be considered, but it should be done cautiously and under close medical supervision, as abrupt discontinuation can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potential worsening of the underlying psychiatric condition. Adding melatonin can be helpful in some cases of RBD, but it’s not the immediate next step before confirming the diagnosis. Initiating clonazepam, a benzodiazepine commonly used for RBD, is premature without definitive diagnostic confirmation and carries risks of side effects, including daytime sedation and dependence. Therefore, a PSG with extended EEG and audio-video recording is the most prudent initial step to accurately diagnose and characterize the patient’s condition before implementing specific treatments. The PSG will provide objective data to guide further management decisions, ensuring patient safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
A 68-year-old male with a history of severe COPD (FEV1/FVC ratio of 55%) and a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to the sleep clinic complaining of excessive daytime sleepiness, morning headaches, and witnessed apneas by his wife. A polysomnogram reveals an AHI of 40 events/hour, predominantly obstructive, and nocturnal hypoventilation with an average overnight PaCO2 of 50 mmHg. His baseline daytime PaCO2 is 48 mmHg. Considering the patient’s coexisting COPD and nocturnal hypoventilation, which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial treatment strategy to address both his obstructive sleep apnea and hypoventilation? The patient is currently on inhaled bronchodilators and supplemental oxygen at 2L/min during the day. He denies any symptoms of anxiety or depression. His Epworth Sleepiness Scale score is 18. A thorough pulmonary function test was recently performed, confirming stable COPD without acute exacerbation.
Correct
The question delves into the complexities of managing obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) in a patient with pre-existing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and nocturnal hypoventilation. The key challenge is to address both conditions effectively without exacerbating either. COPD patients often have impaired respiratory drive and increased sensitivity to supplemental oxygen, which can suppress their breathing and lead to CO2 retention. Treating OSA with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) can improve upper airway obstruction but may also reduce respiratory effort, potentially worsening hypoventilation in susceptible individuals. Volume-assured pressure support (VAPS) is a mode of non-invasive ventilation that provides a set tidal volume with each breath, ensuring adequate ventilation and preventing CO2 buildup. It also supports the upper airway, addressing the OSA component. Therefore, VAPS is a suitable choice because it addresses both the OSA and the underlying hypoventilation associated with COPD. While CPAP alone can treat OSA, it might worsen hypoventilation in this specific patient population. Supplemental oxygen alone does not address the upper airway obstruction of OSA and can suppress respiratory drive in COPD. BiPAP (bilevel positive airway pressure) without volume assurance can also lead to inconsistent ventilation. The crucial aspect is to select a therapy that simultaneously treats OSA and supports adequate ventilation, minimizing the risk of CO2 retention. The optimal approach necessitates a careful titration process and close monitoring of arterial blood gases to ensure that both oxygenation and ventilation are adequately maintained.
Incorrect
The question delves into the complexities of managing obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) in a patient with pre-existing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and nocturnal hypoventilation. The key challenge is to address both conditions effectively without exacerbating either. COPD patients often have impaired respiratory drive and increased sensitivity to supplemental oxygen, which can suppress their breathing and lead to CO2 retention. Treating OSA with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) can improve upper airway obstruction but may also reduce respiratory effort, potentially worsening hypoventilation in susceptible individuals. Volume-assured pressure support (VAPS) is a mode of non-invasive ventilation that provides a set tidal volume with each breath, ensuring adequate ventilation and preventing CO2 buildup. It also supports the upper airway, addressing the OSA component. Therefore, VAPS is a suitable choice because it addresses both the OSA and the underlying hypoventilation associated with COPD. While CPAP alone can treat OSA, it might worsen hypoventilation in this specific patient population. Supplemental oxygen alone does not address the upper airway obstruction of OSA and can suppress respiratory drive in COPD. BiPAP (bilevel positive airway pressure) without volume assurance can also lead to inconsistent ventilation. The crucial aspect is to select a therapy that simultaneously treats OSA and supports adequate ventilation, minimizing the risk of CO2 retention. The optimal approach necessitates a careful titration process and close monitoring of arterial blood gases to ensure that both oxygenation and ventilation are adequately maintained.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
A 48-year-old male with a history of Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA) has been using Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) therapy nightly for the past 6 months with good adherence, as confirmed by his device data. Despite this, he continues to complain of significant excessive daytime sleepiness and difficulty concentrating at work. He denies any residual snoring or witnessed apneas. Which of the following assessment tools would be MOST appropriate to administer NEXT to evaluate for a potential comorbid sleep disorder contributing to his persistent symptoms?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a history of OSA who is experiencing persistent excessive daytime sleepiness despite being compliant with CPAP therapy. This raises the possibility of comorbid insomnia. The Insomnia Severity Index (ISI) is a validated questionnaire specifically designed to assess the severity of insomnia symptoms, including difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep, daytime impairments, and satisfaction with sleep. It is the most appropriate choice among the options for quantifying insomnia symptoms. The Epworth Sleepiness Scale (ESS) primarily measures daytime sleepiness, which is already known to be present. The Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index (PSQI) is a broader measure of sleep quality but is less specific for insomnia. The STOP-BANG questionnaire is a screening tool for OSA risk and is not relevant in this scenario where OSA is already diagnosed and treated.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a history of OSA who is experiencing persistent excessive daytime sleepiness despite being compliant with CPAP therapy. This raises the possibility of comorbid insomnia. The Insomnia Severity Index (ISI) is a validated questionnaire specifically designed to assess the severity of insomnia symptoms, including difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep, daytime impairments, and satisfaction with sleep. It is the most appropriate choice among the options for quantifying insomnia symptoms. The Epworth Sleepiness Scale (ESS) primarily measures daytime sleepiness, which is already known to be present. The Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index (PSQI) is a broader measure of sleep quality but is less specific for insomnia. The STOP-BANG questionnaire is a screening tool for OSA risk and is not relevant in this scenario where OSA is already diagnosed and treated.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A 62-year-old male with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes is diagnosed with severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) based on polysomnography. He is initially hesitant to start continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) therapy. Considering the impact of sleep disorders on comorbid conditions, what is the MOST significant cardiovascular risk associated with untreated OSA in this patient?
Correct
The question is about understanding the impact of sleep disorders on comorbid conditions, specifically cardiovascular disease. The key is to understand the mechanisms by which sleep apnea can contribute to cardiovascular problems. Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is associated with intermittent hypoxia (low oxygen levels), sleep fragmentation, and increased sympathetic nervous system activity. These factors can lead to increased blood pressure, increased risk of arrhythmias, increased risk of stroke, and increased risk of heart failure. Studies have shown that effective treatment of OSA with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) can improve blood pressure control, reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, and improve overall cardiovascular outcomes. Therefore, the most significant cardiovascular risk associated with untreated OSA is an increased risk of hypertension and cardiovascular events.
Incorrect
The question is about understanding the impact of sleep disorders on comorbid conditions, specifically cardiovascular disease. The key is to understand the mechanisms by which sleep apnea can contribute to cardiovascular problems. Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is associated with intermittent hypoxia (low oxygen levels), sleep fragmentation, and increased sympathetic nervous system activity. These factors can lead to increased blood pressure, increased risk of arrhythmias, increased risk of stroke, and increased risk of heart failure. Studies have shown that effective treatment of OSA with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) can improve blood pressure control, reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, and improve overall cardiovascular outcomes. Therefore, the most significant cardiovascular risk associated with untreated OSA is an increased risk of hypertension and cardiovascular events.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A 68-year-old male presents to your sleep clinic with a complaint of acting out his dreams for the past six months. His wife reports that he yells, punches, and kicks during sleep, occasionally falling out of bed. He denies any history of neurological disorders but reports daytime sleepiness. Polysomnography reveals an AHI of 35 events/hour, consistent with severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), and also shows increased muscle tone during REM sleep. Based on these findings, which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy for this patient? The patient has no known allergies and his medical history is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both well-controlled with medication. He has no history of cognitive impairment or psychiatric illness. He denies alcohol or drug use. A neurological examination is normal.
Correct
The scenario describes a patient presenting with symptoms suggestive of REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD) but complicated by the presence of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). The crucial aspect of management here is prioritizing the treatment of OSA before directly addressing the potential RBD. Untreated OSA can lead to significant sleep fragmentation and arousals, which can exacerbate or even mimic RBD symptoms. Furthermore, the physiological stress imposed by OSA can indirectly affect neurotransmitter systems involved in sleep regulation, potentially worsening RBD-like behaviors. Therefore, the initial step should be to address the OSA with CPAP therapy. If RBD symptoms persist despite effective OSA treatment, further investigation and specific RBD management (e.g., melatonin, clonazepam) can be considered. Initiating medications for RBD before addressing the OSA could mask the underlying contribution of OSA to the patient’s symptoms and potentially lead to inappropriate or ineffective treatment. Delaying OSA treatment carries risks related to cardiovascular and metabolic health. While neurological consultation and advanced neuroimaging might be warranted later, they are not the immediate priority. Similarly, while sleep hygiene is always important, it will not be sufficient to address the potential RBD symptoms if they are being driven or exacerbated by untreated OSA. The primary goal is to rule out or treat OSA first, as it could be the main contributing factor or significantly worsen the presentation of RBD.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient presenting with symptoms suggestive of REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD) but complicated by the presence of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). The crucial aspect of management here is prioritizing the treatment of OSA before directly addressing the potential RBD. Untreated OSA can lead to significant sleep fragmentation and arousals, which can exacerbate or even mimic RBD symptoms. Furthermore, the physiological stress imposed by OSA can indirectly affect neurotransmitter systems involved in sleep regulation, potentially worsening RBD-like behaviors. Therefore, the initial step should be to address the OSA with CPAP therapy. If RBD symptoms persist despite effective OSA treatment, further investigation and specific RBD management (e.g., melatonin, clonazepam) can be considered. Initiating medications for RBD before addressing the OSA could mask the underlying contribution of OSA to the patient’s symptoms and potentially lead to inappropriate or ineffective treatment. Delaying OSA treatment carries risks related to cardiovascular and metabolic health. While neurological consultation and advanced neuroimaging might be warranted later, they are not the immediate priority. Similarly, while sleep hygiene is always important, it will not be sufficient to address the potential RBD symptoms if they are being driven or exacerbated by untreated OSA. The primary goal is to rule out or treat OSA first, as it could be the main contributing factor or significantly worsen the presentation of RBD.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
A 32-year-old male presents to your sleep clinic complaining of excessive daytime sleepiness and episodes of sudden muscle weakness triggered by strong emotions like laughter. He reports vivid dream-like experiences as he’s falling asleep and occasionally wakes up unable to move. Polysomnography reveals a significantly shortened REM sleep latency. Which of the following best explains the underlying neurophysiological mechanism contributing to his symptoms, particularly the cataplexy and the intrusion of REM sleep phenomena into wakefulness?
Correct
The core of this question lies in understanding the interplay between orexin, sleep architecture, and the manifestation of narcolepsy. Orexin, also known as hypocretin, is a neuropeptide produced by neurons in the hypothalamus. These neurons project widely throughout the brain, playing a crucial role in promoting wakefulness and stabilizing sleep-wake states. In narcolepsy with cataplexy, there is a significant loss or dysfunction of these orexin-producing neurons. This deficiency disrupts the normal regulation of sleep and wakefulness, leading to the characteristic symptoms of the disorder. Specifically, the loss of orexin leads to instability in sleep-wake boundaries. Individuals with narcolepsy often experience excessive daytime sleepiness because their brains struggle to maintain a stable wakeful state. Conversely, during attempted sleep, the lack of orexin can result in the intrusion of REM sleep phenomena into wakefulness or NREM sleep, leading to symptoms like hypnagogic hallucinations (vivid dream-like experiences at sleep onset), hypnopompic hallucinations (similar experiences upon awakening), and sleep paralysis (the inability to move or speak while falling asleep or waking up). Cataplexy, a sudden loss of muscle tone triggered by strong emotions, is also a direct consequence of orexin deficiency and the dysregulation of REM sleep mechanisms. The normal sleep architecture is also disrupted. Instead of progressing through the typical NREM stages before entering REM sleep, individuals with narcolepsy may enter REM sleep almost immediately after falling asleep (shortened REM latency). This is because the orexin system is no longer effectively suppressing REM sleep during wakefulness and early sleep stages. The other options, while potentially relevant to other sleep disorders or general sleep physiology, do not directly address the primary mechanism underlying the specific symptoms of narcolepsy with cataplexy caused by orexin deficiency. Understanding the specific role of orexin in stabilizing sleep-wake states and suppressing inappropriate REM sleep phenomena is essential for correctly answering this question.
Incorrect
The core of this question lies in understanding the interplay between orexin, sleep architecture, and the manifestation of narcolepsy. Orexin, also known as hypocretin, is a neuropeptide produced by neurons in the hypothalamus. These neurons project widely throughout the brain, playing a crucial role in promoting wakefulness and stabilizing sleep-wake states. In narcolepsy with cataplexy, there is a significant loss or dysfunction of these orexin-producing neurons. This deficiency disrupts the normal regulation of sleep and wakefulness, leading to the characteristic symptoms of the disorder. Specifically, the loss of orexin leads to instability in sleep-wake boundaries. Individuals with narcolepsy often experience excessive daytime sleepiness because their brains struggle to maintain a stable wakeful state. Conversely, during attempted sleep, the lack of orexin can result in the intrusion of REM sleep phenomena into wakefulness or NREM sleep, leading to symptoms like hypnagogic hallucinations (vivid dream-like experiences at sleep onset), hypnopompic hallucinations (similar experiences upon awakening), and sleep paralysis (the inability to move or speak while falling asleep or waking up). Cataplexy, a sudden loss of muscle tone triggered by strong emotions, is also a direct consequence of orexin deficiency and the dysregulation of REM sleep mechanisms. The normal sleep architecture is also disrupted. Instead of progressing through the typical NREM stages before entering REM sleep, individuals with narcolepsy may enter REM sleep almost immediately after falling asleep (shortened REM latency). This is because the orexin system is no longer effectively suppressing REM sleep during wakefulness and early sleep stages. The other options, while potentially relevant to other sleep disorders or general sleep physiology, do not directly address the primary mechanism underlying the specific symptoms of narcolepsy with cataplexy caused by orexin deficiency. Understanding the specific role of orexin in stabilizing sleep-wake states and suppressing inappropriate REM sleep phenomena is essential for correctly answering this question.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A 62-year-old male with a history of chronic heart failure presents with complaints of excessive daytime sleepiness and frequent awakenings during the night. A polysomnography reveals a pattern of Cheyne-Stokes respiration (CSR), characterized by cyclical waxing and waning of tidal volume and respiratory rate, interspersed with central apneas. Which of the following best explains the underlying physiological mechanism contributing to the cyclical breathing pattern observed in CSR in the context of heart failure?
Correct
This question assesses the understanding of the physiological mechanisms underlying central sleep apnea (CSA), particularly in the context of heart failure. CSA is characterized by recurrent apneas and hypopneas during sleep due to a lack of respiratory effort. Several types of CSA exist, including hypercapnic CSA (caused by reduced ventilatory drive) and hypocapnic CSA (caused by instability in the respiratory control system). In patients with heart failure, a common form of CSA is Cheyne-Stokes respiration (CSR), which is a specific breathing pattern characterized by a cyclical waxing and waning of tidal volume and respiratory rate, interspersed with central apneas and hypopneas. The pathophysiology of CSR in heart failure is complex but involves several key factors: 1. **Increased sensitivity to carbon dioxide (CO2):** Heart failure patients often have heightened chemosensitivity to CO2, meaning that even small changes in CO2 levels can trigger significant changes in ventilation. 2. **Prolonged circulation time:** Reduced cardiac output in heart failure leads to a delay in the transport of blood from the lungs to the brainstem chemoreceptors. This delay causes a mismatch between the actual CO2 levels in the blood and the CO2 levels sensed by the brainstem, resulting in oscillations in ventilation. 3. **Pulmonary congestion:** Pulmonary congestion can stimulate pulmonary vagal afferents, which can further contribute to the instability of the respiratory control system. The cyclical pattern of CSR is thought to arise from the interplay between these factors. Hyperventilation leads to a decrease in CO2 levels below the apneic threshold, resulting in a central apnea. During the apnea, CO2 levels gradually rise until they reach the apneic threshold, triggering another cycle of hyperventilation. Therefore, the most accurate explanation for the cyclical breathing pattern observed in CSR is heightened chemosensitivity to carbon dioxide and prolonged circulation time.
Incorrect
This question assesses the understanding of the physiological mechanisms underlying central sleep apnea (CSA), particularly in the context of heart failure. CSA is characterized by recurrent apneas and hypopneas during sleep due to a lack of respiratory effort. Several types of CSA exist, including hypercapnic CSA (caused by reduced ventilatory drive) and hypocapnic CSA (caused by instability in the respiratory control system). In patients with heart failure, a common form of CSA is Cheyne-Stokes respiration (CSR), which is a specific breathing pattern characterized by a cyclical waxing and waning of tidal volume and respiratory rate, interspersed with central apneas and hypopneas. The pathophysiology of CSR in heart failure is complex but involves several key factors: 1. **Increased sensitivity to carbon dioxide (CO2):** Heart failure patients often have heightened chemosensitivity to CO2, meaning that even small changes in CO2 levels can trigger significant changes in ventilation. 2. **Prolonged circulation time:** Reduced cardiac output in heart failure leads to a delay in the transport of blood from the lungs to the brainstem chemoreceptors. This delay causes a mismatch between the actual CO2 levels in the blood and the CO2 levels sensed by the brainstem, resulting in oscillations in ventilation. 3. **Pulmonary congestion:** Pulmonary congestion can stimulate pulmonary vagal afferents, which can further contribute to the instability of the respiratory control system. The cyclical pattern of CSR is thought to arise from the interplay between these factors. Hyperventilation leads to a decrease in CO2 levels below the apneic threshold, resulting in a central apnea. During the apnea, CO2 levels gradually rise until they reach the apneic threshold, triggering another cycle of hyperventilation. Therefore, the most accurate explanation for the cyclical breathing pattern observed in CSR is heightened chemosensitivity to carbon dioxide and prolonged circulation time.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
A 35-year-old male reports difficulty falling asleep and feeling unrefreshed despite spending adequate time in bed. He typically falls asleep within 15 minutes and reports good sleep quality when he doesn’t consume caffeine. However, he recently started drinking two cups of strong coffee in the late afternoon (around 4 PM) to combat work-related fatigue. Polysomnography (PSG) is performed. Considering the physiological effects of caffeine on sleep regulation, and assuming the PSG is performed on a night following his typical caffeine consumption, which of the following sets of changes in sleep architecture is MOST likely to be observed compared to his baseline sleep without caffeine? Assume that the patient’s baseline sleep efficiency is typically high (above 90%). His medical and psychiatric history are unremarkable, and he denies any other substance use.
Correct
The question explores the complex interplay between homeostatic sleep drive, circadian rhythm, and the effects of caffeine on sleep architecture, specifically focusing on sleep latency, slow-wave sleep (SWS), and REM sleep. To answer correctly, one must understand how these factors interact. Homeostatic sleep drive increases with prolonged wakefulness, leading to a greater propensity for sleep and increased SWS during subsequent sleep episodes. Circadian rhythm, governed by the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), influences the timing of sleep and wakefulness, promoting alertness at certain times and sleepiness at others. Caffeine, an adenosine receptor antagonist, blocks the effects of adenosine, a neurotransmitter that promotes sleepiness. This antagonism reduces sleep drive and can delay the onset of sleep. Caffeine’s effect on sleep architecture is multifaceted. By blocking adenosine, it reduces the pressure for sleep, resulting in increased sleep latency (the time it takes to fall asleep). Furthermore, caffeine can suppress SWS, the deepest stage of sleep, which is crucial for restorative functions. While caffeine primarily affects sleep onset and SWS, it can also disrupt REM sleep, although the effect is generally less pronounced than on SWS. The precise extent of REM sleep disruption depends on individual sensitivity, dosage, and timing of caffeine consumption. The scenario highlights an individual with a naturally strong homeostatic sleep drive, indicated by the ability to fall asleep quickly under normal circumstances. However, the introduction of caffeine disrupts this balance. The caffeine reduces the sleep drive, leading to a longer sleep latency. It also interferes with the consolidation of SWS, decreasing its duration. REM sleep may be slightly affected, but the most significant changes are observed in sleep latency and SWS. The individual’s baseline sleep efficiency is likely to decrease due to the increased sleep latency and potential for more awakenings during the night.
Incorrect
The question explores the complex interplay between homeostatic sleep drive, circadian rhythm, and the effects of caffeine on sleep architecture, specifically focusing on sleep latency, slow-wave sleep (SWS), and REM sleep. To answer correctly, one must understand how these factors interact. Homeostatic sleep drive increases with prolonged wakefulness, leading to a greater propensity for sleep and increased SWS during subsequent sleep episodes. Circadian rhythm, governed by the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), influences the timing of sleep and wakefulness, promoting alertness at certain times and sleepiness at others. Caffeine, an adenosine receptor antagonist, blocks the effects of adenosine, a neurotransmitter that promotes sleepiness. This antagonism reduces sleep drive and can delay the onset of sleep. Caffeine’s effect on sleep architecture is multifaceted. By blocking adenosine, it reduces the pressure for sleep, resulting in increased sleep latency (the time it takes to fall asleep). Furthermore, caffeine can suppress SWS, the deepest stage of sleep, which is crucial for restorative functions. While caffeine primarily affects sleep onset and SWS, it can also disrupt REM sleep, although the effect is generally less pronounced than on SWS. The precise extent of REM sleep disruption depends on individual sensitivity, dosage, and timing of caffeine consumption. The scenario highlights an individual with a naturally strong homeostatic sleep drive, indicated by the ability to fall asleep quickly under normal circumstances. However, the introduction of caffeine disrupts this balance. The caffeine reduces the sleep drive, leading to a longer sleep latency. It also interferes with the consolidation of SWS, decreasing its duration. REM sleep may be slightly affected, but the most significant changes are observed in sleep latency and SWS. The individual’s baseline sleep efficiency is likely to decrease due to the increased sleep latency and potential for more awakenings during the night.