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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare presents with a history of prolonged estrus, exhibiting frequent mounting behavior and receptivity to stallions for over two weeks. Initial breeding attempts were unsuccessful. Transrectal ultrasonography reveals multiple developing follicles, none exceeding 40 mm, and no evidence of ovulation. Bloodwork indicates elevated serum estradiol levels but a low luteinizing hormone (LH) concentration. A subsequent ultrasound on day 10 post-insemination attempt shows a corpus luteum (CL) present, which is unusual for a mare that should have undergone luteolysis if not pregnant. Considering the Diplomat, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University’s emphasis on understanding complex endocrine feedback loops in equine reproduction, what is the most likely primary endocrine dysfunction contributing to this mare’s clinical presentation?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged estrus and a lack of response to typical estrus synchronization protocols. The ultrasound findings of multiple follicular waves without ovulation, coupled with elevated estradiol levels and a persistent corpus luteum (CL) on day 10 post-insemination, point towards a disruption in the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. Specifically, the failure to ovulate despite follicular development suggests an issue with the LH surge or the ovarian response to it. The presence of a CL on day 10, which should have regressed by then in a non-pregnant cycle, further indicates a failure of luteolysis. This failure of luteolysis, coupled with the persistent follicular activity, is characteristic of a persistent corpus luteum or a luteal cyst that is producing progesterone, thereby suppressing further follicular development and ovulation. However, the description of multiple follicular waves and lack of ovulation, along with high estradiol, suggests a dominant follicle that is not ovulating, potentially due to inadequate LH surge or resistance to LH. The most likely underlying endocrine imbalance in this context, given the persistent follicular activity and failure to ovulate, is a disruption in the feedback mechanisms regulating gonadotropin release. Specifically, a failure of the positive feedback of high estrogen levels to trigger a sufficient LH surge, or an issue with the ovarian sensitivity to LH, would lead to anovulatory estrus. The presence of a persistent CL on day 10 is contradictory to the described anovulatory estrus with multiple follicular waves and high estradiol, unless the mare was indeed pregnant and the CL is functioning normally, or there is a luteal persistence independent of pregnancy. However, the question focuses on the *cause* of the prolonged estrus and lack of ovulation. Given the presented signs, the most fitting explanation for the failure to ovulate despite follicular development and prolonged estrus is a disruption in the LH surge mechanism. This could be due to insufficient estrogen priming, altered hypothalamic sensitivity to estrogen, or a primary pituitary dysfunction. The presence of a CL on day 10 is a confounding factor if interpreted as a normal cycle, but if it represents luteal persistence, it would further complicate the hormonal milieu. However, focusing on the anovulatory estrus, the core issue is the failure to ovulate. The most direct cause of ovulation failure in the presence of mature follicles is an inadequate or absent LH surge. Therefore, the most appropriate diagnosis explaining the clinical presentation of prolonged estrus and failure to ovulate, despite follicular development, is an anovulatory estrus due to a compromised LH surge.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged estrus and a lack of response to typical estrus synchronization protocols. The ultrasound findings of multiple follicular waves without ovulation, coupled with elevated estradiol levels and a persistent corpus luteum (CL) on day 10 post-insemination, point towards a disruption in the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. Specifically, the failure to ovulate despite follicular development suggests an issue with the LH surge or the ovarian response to it. The presence of a CL on day 10, which should have regressed by then in a non-pregnant cycle, further indicates a failure of luteolysis. This failure of luteolysis, coupled with the persistent follicular activity, is characteristic of a persistent corpus luteum or a luteal cyst that is producing progesterone, thereby suppressing further follicular development and ovulation. However, the description of multiple follicular waves and lack of ovulation, along with high estradiol, suggests a dominant follicle that is not ovulating, potentially due to inadequate LH surge or resistance to LH. The most likely underlying endocrine imbalance in this context, given the persistent follicular activity and failure to ovulate, is a disruption in the feedback mechanisms regulating gonadotropin release. Specifically, a failure of the positive feedback of high estrogen levels to trigger a sufficient LH surge, or an issue with the ovarian sensitivity to LH, would lead to anovulatory estrus. The presence of a persistent CL on day 10 is contradictory to the described anovulatory estrus with multiple follicular waves and high estradiol, unless the mare was indeed pregnant and the CL is functioning normally, or there is a luteal persistence independent of pregnancy. However, the question focuses on the *cause* of the prolonged estrus and lack of ovulation. Given the presented signs, the most fitting explanation for the failure to ovulate despite follicular development and prolonged estrus is a disruption in the LH surge mechanism. This could be due to insufficient estrogen priming, altered hypothalamic sensitivity to estrogen, or a primary pituitary dysfunction. The presence of a CL on day 10 is a confounding factor if interpreted as a normal cycle, but if it represents luteal persistence, it would further complicate the hormonal milieu. However, focusing on the anovulatory estrus, the core issue is the failure to ovulate. The most direct cause of ovulation failure in the presence of mature follicles is an inadequate or absent LH surge. Therefore, the most appropriate diagnosis explaining the clinical presentation of prolonged estrus and failure to ovulate, despite follicular development, is an anovulatory estrus due to a compromised LH surge.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
A 12-year-old Quarter Horse mare, previously unbroken and with no known reproductive history, is presented for evaluation due to a perceived lack of heat cycles. The owner reports no visible signs of estrus over the past breeding season. Upon physical examination, the mare is in good body condition. Transrectal ultrasonography reveals ovaries that are small in diameter, measuring approximately 1.5 cm, with no discernible dominant follicles or corpora lutea. The uterine horns appear thin-walled and flaccid, and the cervix is closed. There is no palpable evidence of ovarian masses or uterine distension suggestive of pathology. Given this presentation, what is the most appropriate therapeutic intervention to attempt to re-establish reproductive cyclicity?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of anestrus, specifically a lack of estrous cyclicity. The veterinarian’s initial diagnostic approach involves assessing the mare’s reproductive status. Ultrasound examination revealing small, inactive ovaries devoid of follicular development or a corpus luteum is indicative of anestrus. The absence of palpable uterine tone and the presence of a closed cervix further support this diagnosis. Considering the mare’s age and lack of prior reproductive history, the most probable underlying cause for persistent anestrus, especially in the absence of pathological findings like ovarian tumors or pyometra, is a failure of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis to initiate or maintain cyclicity. This can be due to various factors, including nutritional deficiencies, stress, season, or underlying endocrine imbalances that suppress gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) pulsatility. Therefore, the most appropriate next step, after ruling out obvious pathology, is to investigate and potentially stimulate the endocrine regulation of reproduction. Administering a GnRH analog, such as deslorelin acetate, is a recognized therapeutic strategy to induce ovulation and re-establish cyclicity in mares with anestrus. GnRH acts on the pituitary gland to stimulate the release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which in turn promote follicular development and ovulation. This approach directly addresses the suspected hormonal deficit underlying the anestrus condition. Other options are less suitable: performing a hysterectomy would be an overly aggressive intervention for anestrus without evidence of uterine pathology; administering prostaglandins would be ineffective in an anestrous mare as they primarily act on the corpus luteum, which is absent; and a transvaginal ultrasound to assess cervical patency is already implicitly covered by the initial ultrasound findings and general reproductive examination, and does not directly address the cause of anestrus.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of anestrus, specifically a lack of estrous cyclicity. The veterinarian’s initial diagnostic approach involves assessing the mare’s reproductive status. Ultrasound examination revealing small, inactive ovaries devoid of follicular development or a corpus luteum is indicative of anestrus. The absence of palpable uterine tone and the presence of a closed cervix further support this diagnosis. Considering the mare’s age and lack of prior reproductive history, the most probable underlying cause for persistent anestrus, especially in the absence of pathological findings like ovarian tumors or pyometra, is a failure of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis to initiate or maintain cyclicity. This can be due to various factors, including nutritional deficiencies, stress, season, or underlying endocrine imbalances that suppress gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) pulsatility. Therefore, the most appropriate next step, after ruling out obvious pathology, is to investigate and potentially stimulate the endocrine regulation of reproduction. Administering a GnRH analog, such as deslorelin acetate, is a recognized therapeutic strategy to induce ovulation and re-establish cyclicity in mares with anestrus. GnRH acts on the pituitary gland to stimulate the release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which in turn promote follicular development and ovulation. This approach directly addresses the suspected hormonal deficit underlying the anestrus condition. Other options are less suitable: performing a hysterectomy would be an overly aggressive intervention for anestrus without evidence of uterine pathology; administering prostaglandins would be ineffective in an anestrous mare as they primarily act on the corpus luteum, which is absent; and a transvaginal ultrasound to assess cervical patency is already implicitly covered by the initial ultrasound findings and general reproductive examination, and does not directly address the cause of anestrus.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare, managed in a herd with other cycling mares, presents for breeding. Ultrasonographic examination reveals a dominant follicle measuring 45 mm in diameter, and she is expected to ovulate within 48 hours. Despite these findings, the mare exhibits no outward signs of estrus, such as receptivity to teasing, tail raising, or vulvar winking. Her previous breeding cycles were normal. What diagnostic approach would be most appropriate to elucidate the cause of the suppressed estrous behavior in this mare, considering the Diplomat, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University’s emphasis on comprehensive reproductive assessment?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of estrus suppression despite a normal estrous cycle length and regular follicular development. The absence of behavioral estrus, coupled with the presence of a dominant follicle and ovulation, points towards a potential issue with estro-receptor sensitivity or downstream signaling pathways within the uterine endometrium or hypothalamus. While exogenous progesterone administration can suppress estrus, its use in this context would be counterproductive if the goal is to induce or observe natural estrus. Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) is luteolytic and would be used to induce estrus in the presence of a functional corpus luteum, which is not indicated here as the mare is cycling. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) administration can induce ovulation, but it does not directly address the lack of behavioral estrus. The most logical explanation for a mare with a developing follicle and ovulating but not showing behavioral estrus is a disruption in the neuroendocrine feedback loop or a reduced sensitivity to estrogen’s behavioral effects. This could be due to subtle hormonal imbalances not captured by basic cycle monitoring, or more likely, a condition affecting the mare’s perception or response to estrogenic stimuli. Therefore, assessing the mare’s response to exogenous estrogen administration, specifically estradiol-17β, is the most appropriate diagnostic step to differentiate between a central (hypothalamic/pituitary) or peripheral (uterine/ovarian) component of the estrus suppression. If the mare exhibits behavioral estrus following estradiol administration, it strongly suggests a deficiency in endogenous estrogen production or a problem with the mare’s sensitivity to her own circulating estrogens, pointing towards a peripheral or subtle central issue. Conversely, if she does not respond, it would indicate a more significant central defect in processing estrogenic signals for behavior.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of estrus suppression despite a normal estrous cycle length and regular follicular development. The absence of behavioral estrus, coupled with the presence of a dominant follicle and ovulation, points towards a potential issue with estro-receptor sensitivity or downstream signaling pathways within the uterine endometrium or hypothalamus. While exogenous progesterone administration can suppress estrus, its use in this context would be counterproductive if the goal is to induce or observe natural estrus. Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) is luteolytic and would be used to induce estrus in the presence of a functional corpus luteum, which is not indicated here as the mare is cycling. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) administration can induce ovulation, but it does not directly address the lack of behavioral estrus. The most logical explanation for a mare with a developing follicle and ovulating but not showing behavioral estrus is a disruption in the neuroendocrine feedback loop or a reduced sensitivity to estrogen’s behavioral effects. This could be due to subtle hormonal imbalances not captured by basic cycle monitoring, or more likely, a condition affecting the mare’s perception or response to estrogenic stimuli. Therefore, assessing the mare’s response to exogenous estrogen administration, specifically estradiol-17β, is the most appropriate diagnostic step to differentiate between a central (hypothalamic/pituitary) or peripheral (uterine/ovarian) component of the estrus suppression. If the mare exhibits behavioral estrus following estradiol administration, it strongly suggests a deficiency in endogenous estrogen production or a problem with the mare’s sensitivity to her own circulating estrogens, pointing towards a peripheral or subtle central issue. Conversely, if she does not respond, it would indicate a more significant central defect in processing estrogenic signals for behavior.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider a mare presented for breeding management. Ultrasonographic examination reveals a single dominant follicle measuring 45 mm in diameter. Endocrine assays indicate elevated serum estradiol levels and a moderate concentration of progesterone originating from the dominant follicle itself. The mare has not been treated with any exogenous hormones. Based on the established endocrinology of the equine estrous cycle, what is the most likely immediate hormonal event that will occur to facilitate ovulation?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the hormonal cascade regulating the ovulatory surge in mares, specifically focusing on the interplay between estradiol and progesterone. During the follicular phase of the mare’s estrous cycle, growing follicles produce increasing amounts of estradiol. This rising estradiol concentration exerts positive feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary gland, leading to a surge in Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH) release. GnRH, in turn, stimulates the anterior pituitary to release a surge of Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and, to a lesser extent, Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH). The LH surge is the primary trigger for ovulation, causing the dominant follicle to rupture and release the oocyte. Progesterone, typically produced by corpora lutea, exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary, suppressing GnRH and LH release. However, in mares, the dominant follicle itself can produce significant amounts of progesterone in the pre-ovulatory phase. This intrafollicular progesterone, in conjunction with high estradiol, can potentiate the LH surge, contributing to its amplitude and timing. Therefore, a scenario where a mare has a dominant follicle producing progesterone, alongside high estradiol, would be expected to result in a robust LH surge, facilitating ovulation. The absence of a functional corpus luteum (CL) does not preclude ovulation, as the follicular development and estradiol production are the primary drivers. Elevated progesterone from a CL would typically *inhibit* the LH surge, not facilitate it, unless it’s part of a specific synchronization protocol not described here. Low estradiol would not induce an LH surge. The presence of a corpus luteum with low estradiol would indicate a luteal phase, not an impending ovulation.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the hormonal cascade regulating the ovulatory surge in mares, specifically focusing on the interplay between estradiol and progesterone. During the follicular phase of the mare’s estrous cycle, growing follicles produce increasing amounts of estradiol. This rising estradiol concentration exerts positive feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary gland, leading to a surge in Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH) release. GnRH, in turn, stimulates the anterior pituitary to release a surge of Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and, to a lesser extent, Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH). The LH surge is the primary trigger for ovulation, causing the dominant follicle to rupture and release the oocyte. Progesterone, typically produced by corpora lutea, exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary, suppressing GnRH and LH release. However, in mares, the dominant follicle itself can produce significant amounts of progesterone in the pre-ovulatory phase. This intrafollicular progesterone, in conjunction with high estradiol, can potentiate the LH surge, contributing to its amplitude and timing. Therefore, a scenario where a mare has a dominant follicle producing progesterone, alongside high estradiol, would be expected to result in a robust LH surge, facilitating ovulation. The absence of a functional corpus luteum (CL) does not preclude ovulation, as the follicular development and estradiol production are the primary drivers. Elevated progesterone from a CL would typically *inhibit* the LH surge, not facilitate it, unless it’s part of a specific synchronization protocol not described here. Low estradiol would not induce an LH surge. The presence of a corpus luteum with low estradiol would indicate a luteal phase, not an impending ovulation.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare is presented for evaluation due to a lack of estrous cycles over the past three months, despite being in the breeding season. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. Transrectal ultrasonography of the ovaries shows multiple follicles ranging from 15-25 mm in diameter on both ovaries, but no evidence of a corpus luteum. Blood work is pending. Considering the mare’s presentation and the initial ultrasound findings, which of the following interventions would be the most appropriate next step to facilitate the resumption of cyclicity and potential ovulation, as per the advanced diagnostic and therapeutic principles taught at Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of anestrus, specifically the absence of estrous cycles. The veterinarian’s initial diagnostic approach involves assessing ovarian activity. Ultrasound examination reveals large, anechoic structures consistent with follicular development, but no corpora lutea. This suggests the mare is not cycling. The subsequent administration of a GnRH analog is intended to induce ovulation by triggering a surge of luteinizing hormone (LH). The absence of a luteal phase (indicated by the lack of corpora lutea on ultrasound) and the presence of large follicles point towards a lack of endogenous LH pulses necessary for ovulation. Therefore, exogenous GnRH administration is the most appropriate next step to stimulate LH release and potentially induce ovulation, thereby breaking the anestrus state. Other options are less suitable: administering prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) would be effective in regressing a corpus luteum, which is absent in this case. Progesterone supplementation would further suppress follicular development and ovulation, exacerbating the anestrus. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) administration might stimulate follicular growth but would not directly trigger ovulation without an LH surge. The correct approach is to stimulate the LH surge.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of anestrus, specifically the absence of estrous cycles. The veterinarian’s initial diagnostic approach involves assessing ovarian activity. Ultrasound examination reveals large, anechoic structures consistent with follicular development, but no corpora lutea. This suggests the mare is not cycling. The subsequent administration of a GnRH analog is intended to induce ovulation by triggering a surge of luteinizing hormone (LH). The absence of a luteal phase (indicated by the lack of corpora lutea on ultrasound) and the presence of large follicles point towards a lack of endogenous LH pulses necessary for ovulation. Therefore, exogenous GnRH administration is the most appropriate next step to stimulate LH release and potentially induce ovulation, thereby breaking the anestrus state. Other options are less suitable: administering prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) would be effective in regressing a corpus luteum, which is absent in this case. Progesterone supplementation would further suppress follicular development and ovulation, exacerbating the anestrus. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) administration might stimulate follicular growth but would not directly trigger ovulation without an LH surge. The correct approach is to stimulate the LH surge.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
A 12-year-old Quarter Horse mare is presented for evaluation due to a history of prolonged periods of estrus, estimated to be lasting 10-14 days, interspersed with shorter periods of behavioral anestrus. Physical examination reveals a dominant follicle measuring 45 mm on the left ovary, with no palpable corpus luteum on either ovary. Transrectal ultrasonography confirms the presence of this large follicle and a thin uterine endometrium. Based on these findings and the mare’s reproductive history, which therapeutic intervention would be most appropriate to re-establish normal estrous cyclicity at Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged estrus and potential luteal inactivity. The primary diagnostic finding is the absence of a palpable corpus luteum (CL) on the ovary and the presence of a dominant follicle, which is consistent with persistent follicular activity. The hormonal profile would likely show elevated estrogen levels due to the dominant follicle and suppressed progesterone levels due to the lack of a functional CL. To address the persistent follicular activity and induce ovulation, exogenous progesterone administration is contraindicated as it would further suppress the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis and inhibit ovulation. Likewise, administering FSH would likely exacerbate follicular development without promoting ovulation, as the dominant follicle is already present and likely producing sufficient estrogen. While GnRH administration can induce ovulation, its efficacy is often enhanced by the presence of a mature follicle, and in cases of prolonged follicular activity, a more direct approach to luteolysis or follicular regression might be considered if a luteal phase were present or desired. The most appropriate therapeutic intervention in this context is the administration of a prostaglandin F2α analog. Prostaglandin F2α is luteolytic, meaning it causes the regression of the corpus luteum. In a mare with persistent follicular activity and no palpable CL, the goal is to break the cycle of persistent follicular development. While there isn’t a CL to lyse, the administration of prostaglandin F2α can sometimes induce ovulation of a dominant follicle, particularly if there is a subtle or transient luteal presence that is not easily detectable by palpation, or if it helps to reset the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis to allow for a new follicular wave to develop and ovulate appropriately. In cases of true anovulatory anestrus with persistent large follicles, other treatments might be considered, but prostaglandin administration is a common first-line approach to attempt to re-establish cyclicity by influencing the hormonal milieu. The rationale is to induce luteolysis if any luteal tissue is present, or to potentially trigger ovulation of the dominant follicle by altering the hormonal environment, thereby allowing for a subsequent follicular wave.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged estrus and potential luteal inactivity. The primary diagnostic finding is the absence of a palpable corpus luteum (CL) on the ovary and the presence of a dominant follicle, which is consistent with persistent follicular activity. The hormonal profile would likely show elevated estrogen levels due to the dominant follicle and suppressed progesterone levels due to the lack of a functional CL. To address the persistent follicular activity and induce ovulation, exogenous progesterone administration is contraindicated as it would further suppress the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis and inhibit ovulation. Likewise, administering FSH would likely exacerbate follicular development without promoting ovulation, as the dominant follicle is already present and likely producing sufficient estrogen. While GnRH administration can induce ovulation, its efficacy is often enhanced by the presence of a mature follicle, and in cases of prolonged follicular activity, a more direct approach to luteolysis or follicular regression might be considered if a luteal phase were present or desired. The most appropriate therapeutic intervention in this context is the administration of a prostaglandin F2α analog. Prostaglandin F2α is luteolytic, meaning it causes the regression of the corpus luteum. In a mare with persistent follicular activity and no palpable CL, the goal is to break the cycle of persistent follicular development. While there isn’t a CL to lyse, the administration of prostaglandin F2α can sometimes induce ovulation of a dominant follicle, particularly if there is a subtle or transient luteal presence that is not easily detectable by palpation, or if it helps to reset the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis to allow for a new follicular wave to develop and ovulate appropriately. In cases of true anovulatory anestrus with persistent large follicles, other treatments might be considered, but prostaglandin administration is a common first-line approach to attempt to re-establish cyclicity by influencing the hormonal milieu. The rationale is to induce luteolysis if any luteal tissue is present, or to potentially trigger ovulation of the dominant follicle by altering the hormonal environment, thereby allowing for a subsequent follicular wave.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
A seasoned theriogenologist at Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University is evaluating a 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare presented for breeding. The mare is in full estrus, readily accepting the stallion during teasing, and exhibits pronounced tail flagging. Upon transrectal palpation and ultrasonographic examination, the left ovary contains a dominant follicle measuring \(35 \text{ mm}\) in diameter, while the right ovary has a palpable corpus luteum (CL) that is not readily visualized on ultrasound due to its early stage of development. Considering the mare’s behavioral signs and follicular development, what is the most appropriate next management step to maximize the probability of conception?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of estrus, including receptivity to a stallion and a characteristic tail flagging behavior. The veterinarian’s examination reveals a dominant follicle measuring \(35 \text{ mm}\) on the left ovary and a corpus luteum (CL) on the right ovary. The mare is also showing a positive response to teasing. The key to determining the most appropriate next step lies in understanding the hormonal milieu and follicular dynamics associated with the estrous cycle. A follicle of \(35 \text{ mm}\) is considered mature and likely to ovulate within the next \(24-48\) hours, especially in the presence of adequate luteinizing hormone (LH) surge, which is typically triggered by rising estrogen levels from the dominant follicle. The presence of a CL on the contralateral ovary indicates a previous ovulation and the production of progesterone, which would normally inhibit estrus. However, the mare is clearly exhibiting estrus, suggesting that either the CL is regressing, or the follicular estrogen is overriding any residual progesterone influence. Given the size of the follicle and the behavioral signs, the most logical and effective intervention to facilitate conception would be to administer human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) or a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analog. These hormones mimic the LH surge, inducing ovulation of the mature follicle within approximately \(36-40\) hours. This timed ovulation strategy maximizes the chances of successful insemination. Administering prostaglandin \(F_{2\alpha}\) (PGF\(_{2\alpha}\)) would be indicated if the goal was to induce luteolysis and bring the mare back into estrus if a functional CL were present and the mare was not in estrus. However, the mare is already in estrus, and the presence of a CL on the *opposite* ovary, while potentially still producing some progesterone, is not the primary target for intervention when a large, ovulatory-sized follicle is present and the mare is showing behavioral estrus. Waiting for natural ovulation without intervention carries the risk of follicular atresia or ovulation at an inconvenient time for insemination. Therefore, inducing ovulation is the most proactive and effective approach in this specific clinical context to optimize the chances of pregnancy at the Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University’s advanced reproductive management standards.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of estrus, including receptivity to a stallion and a characteristic tail flagging behavior. The veterinarian’s examination reveals a dominant follicle measuring \(35 \text{ mm}\) on the left ovary and a corpus luteum (CL) on the right ovary. The mare is also showing a positive response to teasing. The key to determining the most appropriate next step lies in understanding the hormonal milieu and follicular dynamics associated with the estrous cycle. A follicle of \(35 \text{ mm}\) is considered mature and likely to ovulate within the next \(24-48\) hours, especially in the presence of adequate luteinizing hormone (LH) surge, which is typically triggered by rising estrogen levels from the dominant follicle. The presence of a CL on the contralateral ovary indicates a previous ovulation and the production of progesterone, which would normally inhibit estrus. However, the mare is clearly exhibiting estrus, suggesting that either the CL is regressing, or the follicular estrogen is overriding any residual progesterone influence. Given the size of the follicle and the behavioral signs, the most logical and effective intervention to facilitate conception would be to administer human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) or a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analog. These hormones mimic the LH surge, inducing ovulation of the mature follicle within approximately \(36-40\) hours. This timed ovulation strategy maximizes the chances of successful insemination. Administering prostaglandin \(F_{2\alpha}\) (PGF\(_{2\alpha}\)) would be indicated if the goal was to induce luteolysis and bring the mare back into estrus if a functional CL were present and the mare was not in estrus. However, the mare is already in estrus, and the presence of a CL on the *opposite* ovary, while potentially still producing some progesterone, is not the primary target for intervention when a large, ovulatory-sized follicle is present and the mare is showing behavioral estrus. Waiting for natural ovulation without intervention carries the risk of follicular atresia or ovulation at an inconvenient time for insemination. Therefore, inducing ovulation is the most proactive and effective approach in this specific clinical context to optimize the chances of pregnancy at the Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University’s advanced reproductive management standards.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
A seasoned theriogenologist at Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University is presented with a multiparous Quarter Horse mare showing significant relaxation of the pelvic ligaments and a noticeable waxy secretion on her teats. The mare is approximately 340 days into gestation. Based on the established endocrinology of equine parturition, which sequence of hormonal events most accurately reflects the physiological state preceding these observable signs and the imminent foaling?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of impending parturition, specifically the relaxation of pelvic ligaments and the development of a waxy secretion on the teats. These are classic indicators of the mare’s readiness to foal. The question probes the understanding of the hormonal cascade and physiological changes that precede foaling. Progesterone levels decline, while estrogen and prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) increase. PGF2α plays a crucial role in luteolysis, myometrial contractility, and cervical ripening. Oxytocin, released in response to cervical and vaginal distension, is responsible for the powerful uterine contractions during the expulsion phase. The mammary gland development and colostrum production are stimulated by prolactin and placental lactogens, with estrogen and progesterone priming the mammary tissue. Therefore, the most accurate sequence of hormonal events leading to parturition, considering the provided clinical signs, involves the decline of progesterone, a surge in estrogen and PGF2α, and ultimately the action of oxytocin for uterine expulsion. The presence of waxy secretions on the teats indicates mammary gland preparation, driven by prolactin and other hormones, which is a later stage in the pre-parturient period, suggesting that the hormonal shifts facilitating uterine contractions are already well underway. The decline in progesterone is a critical trigger for the cascade of events leading to labor.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of impending parturition, specifically the relaxation of pelvic ligaments and the development of a waxy secretion on the teats. These are classic indicators of the mare’s readiness to foal. The question probes the understanding of the hormonal cascade and physiological changes that precede foaling. Progesterone levels decline, while estrogen and prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) increase. PGF2α plays a crucial role in luteolysis, myometrial contractility, and cervical ripening. Oxytocin, released in response to cervical and vaginal distension, is responsible for the powerful uterine contractions during the expulsion phase. The mammary gland development and colostrum production are stimulated by prolactin and placental lactogens, with estrogen and progesterone priming the mammary tissue. Therefore, the most accurate sequence of hormonal events leading to parturition, considering the provided clinical signs, involves the decline of progesterone, a surge in estrogen and PGF2α, and ultimately the action of oxytocin for uterine expulsion. The presence of waxy secretions on the teats indicates mammary gland preparation, driven by prolactin and other hormones, which is a later stage in the pre-parturient period, suggesting that the hormonal shifts facilitating uterine contractions are already well underway. The decline in progesterone is a critical trigger for the cascade of events leading to labor.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare, bred 45 days ago, has not returned to estrus. Palpation reveals a firm, non-pulsatile cervix and moderate uterine tone. Initial serum progesterone assay confirms elevated levels. The attending theriogenologist suspects either persistent corpus luteum or early embryonic loss without luteolysis. To re-establish a normal estrous cycle and prepare for potential rebreeding, what is the most appropriate immediate diagnostic and therapeutic next step?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged luteal phase and potential embryonic loss or failure to establish pregnancy, indicated by the absence of estrus and palpable uterine tone. The initial progesterone levels are elevated, consistent with a functional corpus luteum. The administration of a prostaglandin analog, such as dinoprost tromethamine, is the appropriate intervention to induce luteolysis. Luteolysis will lead to a decrease in progesterone, which in turn will allow for the resumption of follicular development and estrus. Following luteolysis, the mare is expected to return to estrus within approximately 3-5 days, with ovulation occurring 7-10 days after prostaglandin administration. Therefore, re-evaluation for estrus and ovulation approximately 7-10 days after the prostaglandin injection is the most logical next step to assess the mare’s reproductive status and plan for future breeding. This approach directly addresses the hormonal imbalance and facilitates the natural progression of the estrous cycle, a core principle in theriogenological management of mares.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged luteal phase and potential embryonic loss or failure to establish pregnancy, indicated by the absence of estrus and palpable uterine tone. The initial progesterone levels are elevated, consistent with a functional corpus luteum. The administration of a prostaglandin analog, such as dinoprost tromethamine, is the appropriate intervention to induce luteolysis. Luteolysis will lead to a decrease in progesterone, which in turn will allow for the resumption of follicular development and estrus. Following luteolysis, the mare is expected to return to estrus within approximately 3-5 days, with ovulation occurring 7-10 days after prostaglandin administration. Therefore, re-evaluation for estrus and ovulation approximately 7-10 days after the prostaglandin injection is the most logical next step to assess the mare’s reproductive status and plan for future breeding. This approach directly addresses the hormonal imbalance and facilitates the natural progression of the estrous cycle, a core principle in theriogenological management of mares.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare, managed in a pasture setting with other mares and geldings, is presented for breeding evaluation. Her estrous cycles have been consistently 21 days in length over the past three months, with palpable follicular development observed during routine examinations. However, during teasing sessions with a stallion, she consistently fails to exhibit overt signs of estrus, such as tail raising, urination, or receptivity to mounting. Ultrasonographic examination reveals a dominant follicle measuring 40 mm in diameter and a palpable corpus luteum from the previous cycle. Serum progesterone analysis confirms a level of 3.5 ng/mL. What is the most probable underlying cause for the mare’s lack of estrus behavior despite evidence of reproductive cyclicity?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of estrus suppression despite a normal estrous cycle length and regular follicular development. The absence of behavioral estrus, coupled with a palpable corpus luteum (CL) and a progesterone level of 3.5 ng/mL, indicates that ovulation has occurred and the luteal phase is established. However, the lack of behavioral estrus suggests a disconnect between follicular development and the expression of estrus, or a potential issue with the mare’s response to hormonal cues. The key to understanding this situation lies in the hormonal milieu and the mare’s perception of it. While follicular activity is present, the presence of a functional CL and adequate progesterone levels confirm luteal phase activity. The critical factor missing is the behavioral manifestation of estrus. This can be due to several reasons, including: 1. **Insufficient Estrogen Levels:** While follicles are present, their estrogen production might be suboptimal, leading to an inadequate surge of LH and a weakened estrus response. 2. **Endometrial Receptivity Issues:** The uterine environment might not be sufficiently receptive to estrogen, or there could be subtle endometrial changes impacting the mare’s behavioral response. 3. **Central Nervous System (CNS) Factors:** The mare’s perception of estrus is a complex neurological event. Factors affecting the CNS, such as stress, pain, or neurological conditions, could dampen the behavioral response. 4. **Subtle Hormonal Imbalances:** While progesterone is present, other hormonal interactions, such as the balance between estrogen and progesterone, or even the timing of the LH surge relative to peak estrogen, could be subtly altered. Considering the provided information, the most likely explanation for the lack of behavioral estrus in the presence of a functional CL and progesterone is a disruption in the mare’s ability to express estrus behavior, despite the physiological presence of luteal activity. This points towards a potential issue with the central processing of reproductive signals or a subtle disruption in the estrogenic feedback loop that typically elicits estrus. The correct approach to understanding this scenario involves recognizing that estrus expression is a behavioral phenomenon influenced by hormonal signals but also by central processing. The presence of a CL and progesterone confirms luteal function, but the absence of estrus behavior suggests a breakdown in the signaling pathway leading to the behavioral manifestation. Therefore, focusing on factors that directly influence the expression of estrus behavior, independent of the presence of a CL, is crucial. This includes considering the mare’s overall health, stress levels, and potential neurological influences on reproductive behavior. The question asks to identify the most likely primary reason for the lack of estrus behavior. Given the physiological data (CL present, progesterone elevated), the issue is not a lack of luteal function or a failure to ovulate. Instead, it’s a failure to *display* estrus. This points to a problem with the behavioral component of reproduction, which is influenced by the central nervous system’s interpretation of hormonal cues, particularly estrogen. While other factors can contribute, the most direct explanation for the *behavioral* deficit in the presence of hormonal evidence of a cycle is a disruption in the central processing of these signals.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of estrus suppression despite a normal estrous cycle length and regular follicular development. The absence of behavioral estrus, coupled with a palpable corpus luteum (CL) and a progesterone level of 3.5 ng/mL, indicates that ovulation has occurred and the luteal phase is established. However, the lack of behavioral estrus suggests a disconnect between follicular development and the expression of estrus, or a potential issue with the mare’s response to hormonal cues. The key to understanding this situation lies in the hormonal milieu and the mare’s perception of it. While follicular activity is present, the presence of a functional CL and adequate progesterone levels confirm luteal phase activity. The critical factor missing is the behavioral manifestation of estrus. This can be due to several reasons, including: 1. **Insufficient Estrogen Levels:** While follicles are present, their estrogen production might be suboptimal, leading to an inadequate surge of LH and a weakened estrus response. 2. **Endometrial Receptivity Issues:** The uterine environment might not be sufficiently receptive to estrogen, or there could be subtle endometrial changes impacting the mare’s behavioral response. 3. **Central Nervous System (CNS) Factors:** The mare’s perception of estrus is a complex neurological event. Factors affecting the CNS, such as stress, pain, or neurological conditions, could dampen the behavioral response. 4. **Subtle Hormonal Imbalances:** While progesterone is present, other hormonal interactions, such as the balance between estrogen and progesterone, or even the timing of the LH surge relative to peak estrogen, could be subtly altered. Considering the provided information, the most likely explanation for the lack of behavioral estrus in the presence of a functional CL and progesterone is a disruption in the mare’s ability to express estrus behavior, despite the physiological presence of luteal activity. This points towards a potential issue with the central processing of reproductive signals or a subtle disruption in the estrogenic feedback loop that typically elicits estrus. The correct approach to understanding this scenario involves recognizing that estrus expression is a behavioral phenomenon influenced by hormonal signals but also by central processing. The presence of a CL and progesterone confirms luteal function, but the absence of estrus behavior suggests a breakdown in the signaling pathway leading to the behavioral manifestation. Therefore, focusing on factors that directly influence the expression of estrus behavior, independent of the presence of a CL, is crucial. This includes considering the mare’s overall health, stress levels, and potential neurological influences on reproductive behavior. The question asks to identify the most likely primary reason for the lack of estrus behavior. Given the physiological data (CL present, progesterone elevated), the issue is not a lack of luteal function or a failure to ovulate. Instead, it’s a failure to *display* estrus. This points to a problem with the behavioral component of reproduction, which is influenced by the central nervous system’s interpretation of hormonal cues, particularly estrogen. While other factors can contribute, the most direct explanation for the *behavioral* deficit in the presence of hormonal evidence of a cycle is a disruption in the central processing of these signals.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare, previously cycling normally, presents with a 3-week history of prolonged estrus, characterized by frequent urination, tail raising, and receptivity to teasing. Transrectal ultrasonographic examination reveals multiple large (40-50 mm), anovulatory follicles on both ovaries, with no evidence of a corpus luteum. Previous attempts at estrus synchronization using a progesterone-based protocol followed by prostaglandin administration were unsuccessful in inducing ovulation or returning the mare to estrus. Considering the mare’s clinical presentation and diagnostic findings, which therapeutic approach would be most appropriate to re-establish normal cyclicity for the Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University’s advanced veterinary program?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged estrus and a lack of response to standard estrus synchronization protocols. The persistent follicular development, coupled with the absence of luteal phase activity, strongly suggests a disruption in the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. Specifically, the continuous presence of large, dominant follicles points towards a failure in ovulation or a persistent follicular state. While cystic ovaries can manifest in various ways, including anovulatory follicles or luteinized unruptunded follicles (LUFs), the description of “large, fluid-filled structures” that do not regress and the mare’s prolonged estrus behavior are most consistent with persistent follicular cysts. These cysts are typically characterized by the lack of a corpus luteum and the continuous production of estrogen, leading to prolonged estrus signs. Treatment strategies for persistent follicular cysts often involve interventions that promote ovulation or luteinization. Administration of hCG or GnRH analogs can stimulate LH release, which is crucial for ovulation. Alternatively, prostaglandins can be used to induce luteolysis if a corpus luteum is present, but in this case of persistent follicular cysts, the primary goal is to break the anovulatory cycle. Progesterone administration would be contraindicated as it would suppress gonadotropin release and potentially exacerbate the anovulatory state. Manual follicle aspiration is a less common and often less effective approach for multiple large cysts. Therefore, the most appropriate initial therapeutic intervention to address the persistent follicular development and prolonged estrus is the administration of a GnRH analog to induce an LH surge and promote ovulation.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged estrus and a lack of response to standard estrus synchronization protocols. The persistent follicular development, coupled with the absence of luteal phase activity, strongly suggests a disruption in the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. Specifically, the continuous presence of large, dominant follicles points towards a failure in ovulation or a persistent follicular state. While cystic ovaries can manifest in various ways, including anovulatory follicles or luteinized unruptunded follicles (LUFs), the description of “large, fluid-filled structures” that do not regress and the mare’s prolonged estrus behavior are most consistent with persistent follicular cysts. These cysts are typically characterized by the lack of a corpus luteum and the continuous production of estrogen, leading to prolonged estrus signs. Treatment strategies for persistent follicular cysts often involve interventions that promote ovulation or luteinization. Administration of hCG or GnRH analogs can stimulate LH release, which is crucial for ovulation. Alternatively, prostaglandins can be used to induce luteolysis if a corpus luteum is present, but in this case of persistent follicular cysts, the primary goal is to break the anovulatory cycle. Progesterone administration would be contraindicated as it would suppress gonadotropin release and potentially exacerbate the anovulatory state. Manual follicle aspiration is a less common and often less effective approach for multiple large cysts. Therefore, the most appropriate initial therapeutic intervention to address the persistent follicular development and prolonged estrus is the administration of a GnRH analog to induce an LH surge and promote ovulation.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare, bred via artificial insemination, was confirmed pregnant via ultrasound at 14 days post-insemination. By day 35 post-insemination, the mare had not exhibited any signs of estrus. A follow-up ultrasound examination at day 30 revealed no discernible conceptus. Considering the mare’s failure to return to estrus and the conflicting ultrasound findings, what is the most critical initial diagnostic step to elucidate the mare’s reproductive status for Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University’s advanced reproductive management principles?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged luteal phase and potential embryonic loss, necessitating a diagnostic approach to confirm pregnancy and investigate the cause of the delayed return to estrus. The mare’s history includes a positive pregnancy diagnosis via ultrasound at 14 days post-insemination, followed by no observable estrus by day 35, and a subsequent negative ultrasound at day 30. This pattern suggests either early embryonic death or a failure of the corpus luteum (CL) to regress normally, leading to anestrus. To address this, a veterinarian would typically consider the hormonal milieu. Progesterone is the primary hormone maintaining pregnancy. If embryonic loss occurred, the conceptus would normally signal for luteolysis via interferon-tau (in ruminants) or a similar mechanism in equids, leading to CL regression and a drop in progesterone, allowing the mare to return to estrus. The absence of estrus by day 35, despite a negative ultrasound at day 30, indicates that progesterone levels likely remain elevated. The most direct method to assess the luteal status and differentiate between a functional CL and persistent luteal tissue (or even an unobserved pregnancy) is through progesterone assay. A high progesterone level would confirm the presence of a functional CL, which could be due to continued pregnancy (despite the negative ultrasound, which might have missed a very early conceptus or had a technical error) or a failure of luteolysis. A low progesterone level would indicate luteal regression, suggesting that the mare should have returned to estrus if she was not pregnant. Given the history, the most informative diagnostic step is to measure progesterone. The calculation to determine the appropriate diagnostic step is not a numerical one but a logical deduction based on reproductive physiology. The mare’s clinical signs (lack of estrus) point to a persistent luteal phase. The primary hormone responsible for this is progesterone, produced by the corpus luteum. Therefore, assessing progesterone levels directly addresses the underlying physiological state. The correct approach involves evaluating the hormonal status to understand why the mare has not returned to estrus. Measuring progesterone levels provides a direct assessment of the corpus luteum’s function. If progesterone is high, it indicates a persistent luteal phase, which could be due to an undetected pregnancy or a failure of luteolysis. If progesterone is low, it suggests luteal regression, and the lack of estrus would then need further investigation, possibly related to anestrus or other factors. However, given the positive pregnancy diagnosis earlier, the most likely explanation for the lack of estrus is a persistent CL. Therefore, a progesterone assay is the most critical initial diagnostic step to guide further management.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged luteal phase and potential embryonic loss, necessitating a diagnostic approach to confirm pregnancy and investigate the cause of the delayed return to estrus. The mare’s history includes a positive pregnancy diagnosis via ultrasound at 14 days post-insemination, followed by no observable estrus by day 35, and a subsequent negative ultrasound at day 30. This pattern suggests either early embryonic death or a failure of the corpus luteum (CL) to regress normally, leading to anestrus. To address this, a veterinarian would typically consider the hormonal milieu. Progesterone is the primary hormone maintaining pregnancy. If embryonic loss occurred, the conceptus would normally signal for luteolysis via interferon-tau (in ruminants) or a similar mechanism in equids, leading to CL regression and a drop in progesterone, allowing the mare to return to estrus. The absence of estrus by day 35, despite a negative ultrasound at day 30, indicates that progesterone levels likely remain elevated. The most direct method to assess the luteal status and differentiate between a functional CL and persistent luteal tissue (or even an unobserved pregnancy) is through progesterone assay. A high progesterone level would confirm the presence of a functional CL, which could be due to continued pregnancy (despite the negative ultrasound, which might have missed a very early conceptus or had a technical error) or a failure of luteolysis. A low progesterone level would indicate luteal regression, suggesting that the mare should have returned to estrus if she was not pregnant. Given the history, the most informative diagnostic step is to measure progesterone. The calculation to determine the appropriate diagnostic step is not a numerical one but a logical deduction based on reproductive physiology. The mare’s clinical signs (lack of estrus) point to a persistent luteal phase. The primary hormone responsible for this is progesterone, produced by the corpus luteum. Therefore, assessing progesterone levels directly addresses the underlying physiological state. The correct approach involves evaluating the hormonal status to understand why the mare has not returned to estrus. Measuring progesterone levels provides a direct assessment of the corpus luteum’s function. If progesterone is high, it indicates a persistent luteal phase, which could be due to an undetected pregnancy or a failure of luteolysis. If progesterone is low, it suggests luteal regression, and the lack of estrus would then need further investigation, possibly related to anestrus or other factors. However, given the positive pregnancy diagnosis earlier, the most likely explanation for the lack of estrus is a persistent CL. Therefore, a progesterone assay is the most critical initial diagnostic step to guide further management.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
A seasoned theriogenologist at Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University is monitoring a client’s mare nearing her foaling date. The mare has shown significant relaxation of her pelvic ligaments, pronounced mammary gland engorgement with waxiness on the teats, and noticeable vulvar edema. Upon examination, the veterinarian observes a translucent, glistening membrane protruding slightly from the mare’s vulva. Which of the following observations most strongly indicates that the mare is in the second stage of labor and requires immediate attention for potential intervention?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of impending parturition, including relaxation of pelvic ligaments, mammary gland engorgement, and vulvar edema. The critical factor in determining the optimal time for intervention, if necessary, is the assessment of cervical dilation and the presence of fetal membranes. Cervical dilation is a direct indicator of the mare’s readiness for foaling. The presence of fetal membranes, particularly the amnion, protruding from the vulva signifies that the chorioallantois has ruptured and the amnion is now presenting. This is a strong predictor of imminent delivery, typically within minutes to an hour. While mammary engorgement and vulvar edema are important signs of approaching parturition, they are less precise indicators of immediate foaling than cervical dilation and amnion presentation. Therefore, the most crucial observation for timing potential intervention, such as assisting with a malpresentation or managing dystocia, is the visual confirmation of the amnion sac at the vulva, signifying the mare is in the second stage of labor. This observation allows for timely and appropriate action to ensure a successful outcome for both mare and foal, aligning with the advanced diagnostic and management principles expected at Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of impending parturition, including relaxation of pelvic ligaments, mammary gland engorgement, and vulvar edema. The critical factor in determining the optimal time for intervention, if necessary, is the assessment of cervical dilation and the presence of fetal membranes. Cervical dilation is a direct indicator of the mare’s readiness for foaling. The presence of fetal membranes, particularly the amnion, protruding from the vulva signifies that the chorioallantois has ruptured and the amnion is now presenting. This is a strong predictor of imminent delivery, typically within minutes to an hour. While mammary engorgement and vulvar edema are important signs of approaching parturition, they are less precise indicators of immediate foaling than cervical dilation and amnion presentation. Therefore, the most crucial observation for timing potential intervention, such as assisting with a malpresentation or managing dystocia, is the visual confirmation of the amnion sac at the vulva, signifying the mare is in the second stage of labor. This observation allows for timely and appropriate action to ensure a successful outcome for both mare and foal, aligning with the advanced diagnostic and management principles expected at Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
A 12-year-old Quarter Horse mare, due to foal in approximately two weeks, is observed to have significant relaxation of her pelvic ligaments, noticeable vulvar edema, and enlarged, firm mammary glands with wax caps present on the teats. Based on the typical hormonal events preceding parturition in equids, which hormonal shift is most directly responsible for initiating the cascade of events leading to labor?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of impending parturition, specifically the relaxation of pelvic ligaments, vulvar edema, and mammary gland development. The question probes the understanding of the hormonal cascade leading to parturition. Progesterone withdrawal is a critical event that removes its inhibitory effect on uterine contractions and the release of oxytocin. Simultaneously, fetal cortisol levels rise, stimulating the placenta to produce prostaglandins (PGF2α and PGE2). PGF2α plays a dual role: it induces luteolysis, leading to a further drop in progesterone, and directly stimulates uterine myometrial contractions. PGE2 also contributes to cervical ripening and uterine contractility. Estrogen levels typically rise during late gestation, increasing uterine sensitivity to oxytocin and promoting myometrial activity. Therefore, the combination of progesterone decline, increased prostaglandins, and rising estrogen creates the hormonal milieu necessary for initiating labor. The absence of a significant rise in prolactin at this stage is consistent with its primary role in lactogenesis, which typically follows parturition, and its influence on maternal behavior, rather than initiating the birthing process itself.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of impending parturition, specifically the relaxation of pelvic ligaments, vulvar edema, and mammary gland development. The question probes the understanding of the hormonal cascade leading to parturition. Progesterone withdrawal is a critical event that removes its inhibitory effect on uterine contractions and the release of oxytocin. Simultaneously, fetal cortisol levels rise, stimulating the placenta to produce prostaglandins (PGF2α and PGE2). PGF2α plays a dual role: it induces luteolysis, leading to a further drop in progesterone, and directly stimulates uterine myometrial contractions. PGE2 also contributes to cervical ripening and uterine contractility. Estrogen levels typically rise during late gestation, increasing uterine sensitivity to oxytocin and promoting myometrial activity. Therefore, the combination of progesterone decline, increased prostaglandins, and rising estrogen creates the hormonal milieu necessary for initiating labor. The absence of a significant rise in prolactin at this stage is consistent with its primary role in lactogenesis, which typically follows parturition, and its influence on maternal behavior, rather than initiating the birthing process itself.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
A seasoned theriogenologist at Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University is presented with a 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare exhibiting a consistent 21-day estrous cycle length. Ultrasonographic examination on day 10 of the cycle reveals a palpable corpus luteum of approximately 25 mm in diameter, and ovulation was confirmed via serial ultrasonography on day 14. Despite these findings, the mare displays no outward signs of estrus, such as tail raising, vulvar winking, or receptivity to a stallion, and previous insemination attempts have failed to result in pregnancy. What is the most likely underlying physiological or pathological reason for this mare’s presentation?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare with a regular estrous cycle, confirmed ovulation, and the presence of a functional corpus luteum on day 10. Despite these indicators of reproductive normalcy, the mare fails to exhibit behavioral estrus and does not conceive. This combination of findings suggests a disconnect between the physiological readiness for reproduction and the behavioral expression of estrus, or an issue with early pregnancy establishment that might feedback to suppress estrous signaling. A functional corpus luteum on day 10 indicates that ovulation has occurred and the luteal phase is established, producing progesterone. This progesterone should, in a typical cycle, suppress estrous behavior. The absence of estrous behavior, therefore, is paradoxical if the mare is indeed in the follicular phase as suggested by the ovulation. However, the prompt states “regular ovulation” and “normal estrous cycle length,” implying that the cycle is proceeding. The lack of estrous behavior *during* the expected follicular phase, or a failure to return to estrus after a potential early pregnancy loss, is the key. If the mare is not showing estrus, it implies either a lack of sufficient estrogenic stimulation or a central nervous system issue that prevents the behavioral response to estrogen. Given that ovulation has occurred, the preceding follicular phase must have been present. The failure to conceive could be due to various factors, including fertilization failure, early embryonic death, or uterine receptivity issues. However, the lack of estrous behavior is the more perplexing symptom in the context of a regular cycle and ovulation. The most fitting explanation would be a condition that disrupts the neuroendocrine pathways responsible for estrous behavior, or a subtle alteration in the mare’s response to estrogen. This could be due to factors affecting the hypothalamus or pituitary’s processing of hormonal signals, or a condition that, while allowing ovulation, somehow suppresses the behavioral manifestation of estrus. The correct approach involves understanding that estrous behavior is a complex interplay of hormonal signals and central nervous system processing. Therefore, a condition that impairs this central processing, even in the presence of a functional reproductive cycle, would explain the observed signs.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare with a regular estrous cycle, confirmed ovulation, and the presence of a functional corpus luteum on day 10. Despite these indicators of reproductive normalcy, the mare fails to exhibit behavioral estrus and does not conceive. This combination of findings suggests a disconnect between the physiological readiness for reproduction and the behavioral expression of estrus, or an issue with early pregnancy establishment that might feedback to suppress estrous signaling. A functional corpus luteum on day 10 indicates that ovulation has occurred and the luteal phase is established, producing progesterone. This progesterone should, in a typical cycle, suppress estrous behavior. The absence of estrous behavior, therefore, is paradoxical if the mare is indeed in the follicular phase as suggested by the ovulation. However, the prompt states “regular ovulation” and “normal estrous cycle length,” implying that the cycle is proceeding. The lack of estrous behavior *during* the expected follicular phase, or a failure to return to estrus after a potential early pregnancy loss, is the key. If the mare is not showing estrus, it implies either a lack of sufficient estrogenic stimulation or a central nervous system issue that prevents the behavioral response to estrogen. Given that ovulation has occurred, the preceding follicular phase must have been present. The failure to conceive could be due to various factors, including fertilization failure, early embryonic death, or uterine receptivity issues. However, the lack of estrous behavior is the more perplexing symptom in the context of a regular cycle and ovulation. The most fitting explanation would be a condition that disrupts the neuroendocrine pathways responsible for estrous behavior, or a subtle alteration in the mare’s response to estrogen. This could be due to factors affecting the hypothalamus or pituitary’s processing of hormonal signals, or a condition that, while allowing ovulation, somehow suppresses the behavioral manifestation of estrus. The correct approach involves understanding that estrous behavior is a complex interplay of hormonal signals and central nervous system processing. Therefore, a condition that impairs this central processing, even in the presence of a functional reproductive cycle, would explain the observed signs.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare, previously a successful broodmare, is presented for breeding. Her estrous cycles have been consistently 21 days in length, with ultrasound examinations revealing a dominant follicle reaching 45 mm in diameter and subsequent ovulation occurring approximately 48 hours after the detection of a significant LH surge. However, the mare consistently fails to exhibit any overt behavioral signs of estrus, such as receptivity to the stallion, tail raising, or vulvar winking, despite repeated observations during her follicular phase. This lack of behavioral estrus is a new development. What is the most probable underlying reproductive physiological explanation for this mare’s presentation at Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of estrus suppression despite a normal estrous cycle length and regular follicular development. The absence of behavioral estrus, coupled with the presence of a dominant follicle and the expected LH surge, points towards a potential issue with the mare’s response to hormonal cues or a subtle behavioral anomaly. Given the mare’s history of successful pregnancies and the absence of overt pathology, the most likely explanation for the lack of observable estrus is a disruption in the peripheral manifestation of estrus, rather than a complete failure of ovulation or hormonal signaling. The question probes the understanding of the nuanced interplay between follicular development, hormonal surges, and the behavioral expression of estrus. The correct answer focuses on the possibility of a silent heat, where ovulation occurs without overt behavioral signs, which can be influenced by various factors including stress, individual variation, or subtle hormonal imbalances not readily detectable by standard diagnostics. Other options are less likely: a persistent corpus luteum would typically suppress follicular development and estrus; a luteal phase defect would manifest as shortened cycles or early embryonic loss, not necessarily suppressed estrus with normal follicular growth; and a failure of ovulation despite follicular development would likely be accompanied by a lack of LH surge or a dysfunctional follicle, which is not indicated here.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of estrus suppression despite a normal estrous cycle length and regular follicular development. The absence of behavioral estrus, coupled with the presence of a dominant follicle and the expected LH surge, points towards a potential issue with the mare’s response to hormonal cues or a subtle behavioral anomaly. Given the mare’s history of successful pregnancies and the absence of overt pathology, the most likely explanation for the lack of observable estrus is a disruption in the peripheral manifestation of estrus, rather than a complete failure of ovulation or hormonal signaling. The question probes the understanding of the nuanced interplay between follicular development, hormonal surges, and the behavioral expression of estrus. The correct answer focuses on the possibility of a silent heat, where ovulation occurs without overt behavioral signs, which can be influenced by various factors including stress, individual variation, or subtle hormonal imbalances not readily detectable by standard diagnostics. Other options are less likely: a persistent corpus luteum would typically suppress follicular development and estrus; a luteal phase defect would manifest as shortened cycles or early embryonic loss, not necessarily suppressed estrus with normal follicular growth; and a failure of ovulation despite follicular development would likely be accompanied by a lack of LH surge or a dysfunctional follicle, which is not indicated here.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
A seasoned theriogenologist at Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University is evaluating a multiparous Quarter Horse mare showing significant vulvar relaxation, palpable udder engorgement with colostrum leakage, and a softened cervix upon digital palpation. The mare has been restless for several hours. Considering the critical need for timely intervention in potential dystocia cases, which of the following findings would most definitively indicate that the mare has entered the second stage of labor, requiring immediate attention for potential assisted delivery?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of impending parturition, including vulvar relaxation, udder development, and cervical changes. The critical element for successful intervention, particularly in cases of dystocia or the need for assisted delivery, is accurate assessment of cervical dilation and the stage of labor. Cervical dilation is a progressive process, and its degree directly correlates with the mare’s readiness for foaling. While vulvar relaxation and udder development are important indicators, they are less precise than direct cervical assessment. The presence of fetal membranes protruding from the cervix, often referred to as the “water bag” or allantoic sac, signifies the rupture of membranes and the onset of the second stage of labor, which is characterized by uterine contractions and expulsion of the fetus. This stage requires prompt attention to prevent fetal distress. Therefore, the most critical diagnostic finding to confirm the mare is in the active second stage of labor, necessitating immediate intervention if dystocia is suspected or if the foal is not progressing, is the presence of fetal membranes protruding from the dilated cervix. This indicates that the cervix has undergone sufficient dilation to allow for fetal passage and that the expulsive forces are imminent or ongoing.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of impending parturition, including vulvar relaxation, udder development, and cervical changes. The critical element for successful intervention, particularly in cases of dystocia or the need for assisted delivery, is accurate assessment of cervical dilation and the stage of labor. Cervical dilation is a progressive process, and its degree directly correlates with the mare’s readiness for foaling. While vulvar relaxation and udder development are important indicators, they are less precise than direct cervical assessment. The presence of fetal membranes protruding from the cervix, often referred to as the “water bag” or allantoic sac, signifies the rupture of membranes and the onset of the second stage of labor, which is characterized by uterine contractions and expulsion of the fetus. This stage requires prompt attention to prevent fetal distress. Therefore, the most critical diagnostic finding to confirm the mare is in the active second stage of labor, necessitating immediate intervention if dystocia is suspected or if the foal is not progressing, is the presence of fetal membranes protruding from the dilated cervix. This indicates that the cervix has undergone sufficient dilation to allow for fetal passage and that the expulsive forces are imminent or ongoing.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Consider a mare in the late follicular phase of her estrous cycle, characterized by a large, dominant follicle measuring 45 mm in diameter and consistently high serum estradiol concentrations. Concurrent hormonal assays reveal the presence of a low but detectable level of progesterone. Given these physiological parameters, what is the most likely immediate consequence on the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, as assessed by Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University’s advanced reproductive physiology curriculum?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the hormonal cascade regulating the ovulatory surge in mares, specifically focusing on the interplay between estradiol and progesterone. During the follicular phase of the mare’s estrous cycle, growing follicles produce increasing amounts of estradiol. This rising estradiol concentration initially exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary, suppressing FSH release. However, as follicular development progresses and estradiol levels reach a critical threshold and are maintained for a sufficient duration, the feedback mechanism shifts to positive. This positive feedback stimulates the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus, which in turn triggers a surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary. LH surge is the primary trigger for ovulation. Progesterone, while generally inhibitory to GnRH and LH release during the luteal phase, can also exert positive feedback on the LH surge if present at a sufficient concentration during the late follicular phase, particularly in mares. This phenomenon, known as progesterone priming, can advance ovulation. Therefore, a mare with a dominant follicle and elevated estradiol, but also with residual progesterone from a previous luteal phase or exogenous administration, would be primed for an earlier and more robust LH surge compared to a mare with only high estradiol. The scenario describes a mare with a large follicle and high estradiol, but also mentions the presence of progesterone. This combination is indicative of a situation where progesterone priming is likely occurring, leading to an accelerated LH surge and subsequent ovulation. The correct answer reflects this understanding of the synergistic positive feedback of estradiol and progesterone on LH release.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the hormonal cascade regulating the ovulatory surge in mares, specifically focusing on the interplay between estradiol and progesterone. During the follicular phase of the mare’s estrous cycle, growing follicles produce increasing amounts of estradiol. This rising estradiol concentration initially exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary, suppressing FSH release. However, as follicular development progresses and estradiol levels reach a critical threshold and are maintained for a sufficient duration, the feedback mechanism shifts to positive. This positive feedback stimulates the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus, which in turn triggers a surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary. LH surge is the primary trigger for ovulation. Progesterone, while generally inhibitory to GnRH and LH release during the luteal phase, can also exert positive feedback on the LH surge if present at a sufficient concentration during the late follicular phase, particularly in mares. This phenomenon, known as progesterone priming, can advance ovulation. Therefore, a mare with a dominant follicle and elevated estradiol, but also with residual progesterone from a previous luteal phase or exogenous administration, would be primed for an earlier and more robust LH surge compared to a mare with only high estradiol. The scenario describes a mare with a large follicle and high estradiol, but also mentions the presence of progesterone. This combination is indicative of a situation where progesterone priming is likely occurring, leading to an accelerated LH surge and subsequent ovulation. The correct answer reflects this understanding of the synergistic positive feedback of estradiol and progesterone on LH release.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare, managed in a mixed-gender pasture, fails to exhibit typical estrus behaviors despite ultrasonographic confirmation of a dominant follicle measuring 45 mm and a thickened uterine endometrium. She shows no signs of pregnancy on palpation or ultrasound. Her herd mates include several mares and two geldings. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic or management step to confirm her reproductive status and facilitate potential breeding, considering the Diplomat, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University’s emphasis on comprehensive reproductive assessment?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of estrus suppression despite normal follicular development and absence of pregnancy. The key to understanding this situation lies in the interplay between the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis and external stimuli. Estrus behavior is a complex phenomenon influenced not only by ovarian hormones but also by social cues and environmental factors. In mares, the presence of a stallion or even a teaser stallion can significantly influence estrus expression. The absence of a stallion, coupled with a potentially dominant or non-receptive herd mate, can lead to a suppression of overt estrus behavior, even when the mare is physiologically capable of cycling. This phenomenon is often referred to as “silent heat” or “subtle estrus,” where the hormonal milieu is appropriate for estrus, but the behavioral component is masked or absent due to social dynamics. Therefore, introducing a stallion or a more potent stimulus for estrus expression is the most logical next step to confirm the mare’s reproductive status and facilitate breeding. The other options, while potentially relevant in other reproductive contexts, do not directly address the behavioral suppression of estrus in the presence of normal follicular activity. Administering progesterone would further suppress estrus, which is counterproductive. Performing a uterine biopsy is an invasive diagnostic tool typically reserved for cases of suspected endometritis or chronic infertility, not for a mare showing normal follicular development. Ultrasound examination of the ovaries, while useful for monitoring follicular growth, has already indicated that the mare is cycling, making further detailed ovarian assessment less critical for addressing the immediate behavioral issue.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of estrus suppression despite normal follicular development and absence of pregnancy. The key to understanding this situation lies in the interplay between the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis and external stimuli. Estrus behavior is a complex phenomenon influenced not only by ovarian hormones but also by social cues and environmental factors. In mares, the presence of a stallion or even a teaser stallion can significantly influence estrus expression. The absence of a stallion, coupled with a potentially dominant or non-receptive herd mate, can lead to a suppression of overt estrus behavior, even when the mare is physiologically capable of cycling. This phenomenon is often referred to as “silent heat” or “subtle estrus,” where the hormonal milieu is appropriate for estrus, but the behavioral component is masked or absent due to social dynamics. Therefore, introducing a stallion or a more potent stimulus for estrus expression is the most logical next step to confirm the mare’s reproductive status and facilitate breeding. The other options, while potentially relevant in other reproductive contexts, do not directly address the behavioral suppression of estrus in the presence of normal follicular activity. Administering progesterone would further suppress estrus, which is counterproductive. Performing a uterine biopsy is an invasive diagnostic tool typically reserved for cases of suspected endometritis or chronic infertility, not for a mare showing normal follicular development. Ultrasound examination of the ovaries, while useful for monitoring follicular growth, has already indicated that the mare is cycling, making further detailed ovarian assessment less critical for addressing the immediate behavioral issue.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare, previously a successful performance athlete, has not exhibited estrous cycles for the past six months. Her owner reports inconsistent teasing responses and a lack of visible vulvar changes. Previous breeding attempts were unsuccessful. A veterinarian performs a reproductive soundness examination, including ultrasound and hormonal assays. Ultrasound reveals small, inactive ovaries with no significant follicular development or corpora lutea. Hormonal assays reveal low basal levels of progesterone, low estradiol, and low follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). Luteinizing hormone (LH) levels are also found to be significantly below the expected surge threshold for ovulation. Considering the mare’s clinical presentation and diagnostic findings, which hormonal profile most accurately reflects the underlying physiological state contributing to her prolonged anestrus?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged anestrus, which is a common challenge in equine reproduction. The mare’s history of irregular cycles and failure to conceive despite multiple breeding attempts points towards an endocrine imbalance. The veterinarian’s diagnostic approach involves assessing hormonal profiles. The key to understanding the mare’s condition lies in interpreting the interplay between the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. Prolonged anestrus can be caused by insufficient GnRH pulsatility from the hypothalamus, leading to low FSH and LH secretion from the pituitary. This, in turn, results in inadequate follicular development and low estrogen production by the ovaries. Without sufficient estrogen feedback, the LH surge required for ovulation is not triggered. Therefore, a low basal level of progesterone, coupled with low estrogen and FSH/LH, is indicative of a lack of follicular activity and ovulation. Progesterone is primarily produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation; its absence in an anestrous mare suggests no recent ovulatory events. While FSH is crucial for follicular growth, its levels can fluctuate, and a sustained lack of follicular development, as suggested by the prolonged anestrus, implies a failure at a higher regulatory level or a lack of ovarian response. LH is essential for ovulation, and its absence or low levels would directly correlate with the failure to ovulate. The combination of low estrogen and low LH is the most direct indicator of the absence of a dominant follicle and the impending lack of ovulation.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged anestrus, which is a common challenge in equine reproduction. The mare’s history of irregular cycles and failure to conceive despite multiple breeding attempts points towards an endocrine imbalance. The veterinarian’s diagnostic approach involves assessing hormonal profiles. The key to understanding the mare’s condition lies in interpreting the interplay between the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. Prolonged anestrus can be caused by insufficient GnRH pulsatility from the hypothalamus, leading to low FSH and LH secretion from the pituitary. This, in turn, results in inadequate follicular development and low estrogen production by the ovaries. Without sufficient estrogen feedback, the LH surge required for ovulation is not triggered. Therefore, a low basal level of progesterone, coupled with low estrogen and FSH/LH, is indicative of a lack of follicular activity and ovulation. Progesterone is primarily produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation; its absence in an anestrous mare suggests no recent ovulatory events. While FSH is crucial for follicular growth, its levels can fluctuate, and a sustained lack of follicular development, as suggested by the prolonged anestrus, implies a failure at a higher regulatory level or a lack of ovarian response. LH is essential for ovulation, and its absence or low levels would directly correlate with the failure to ovulate. The combination of low estrogen and low LH is the most direct indicator of the absence of a dominant follicle and the impending lack of ovulation.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare is presented with a history of continuous estrus behavior for the past three weeks. Physical examination reveals a relaxed cervix, a fluid-filled uterus, and multiple follicles ranging from 15-25 mm on both ovaries. Palpation of the ovaries does not reveal any palpable luteal tissue. Hormonal assays are pending, but preliminary assessment suggests a lack of progesterone. Given this presentation, which therapeutic intervention would be most appropriate to re-establish normal cyclicity for the Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University’s veterinary teaching hospital?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs consistent with luteal phase inactivity and a potential failure of luteolysis. The mare’s persistent estrus behavior, coupled with the absence of palpable luteal tissue and the presence of follicular activity, suggests a disruption in the normal progesterone production and feedback mechanisms. The key to understanding the correct approach lies in recognizing the hormonal milieu. During the luteal phase, progesterone from the corpus luteum (CL) exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary, suppressing GnRH and LH/FSH release, thereby preventing follicular development and estrus. The absence of a functional CL, as indicated by the lack of palpable luteal tissue and the mare’s estrus, means this negative feedback is absent. However, the mare is not cycling normally, implying a problem beyond simple anestrus. The presence of follicular waves without ovulation suggests a potential issue with LH surge generation or responsiveness. Administering prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) is indicated to lyse a corpus luteum if one were present. However, in this case, the absence of a CL makes PGF2α ineffective for inducing luteolysis. The mare’s persistent estrus and follicular activity, without a CL, points towards a lack of progesterone support. Therefore, exogenous progesterone administration would be the most logical step to mimic the luteal phase, provide negative feedback, and potentially allow for the resumption of normal cyclic activity by suppressing follicular development and estrus, thereby creating an environment conducive to the development of a functional CL in a subsequent cycle. This approach aims to re-establish the hormonal balance necessary for ovulation and the establishment of a new luteal phase.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs consistent with luteal phase inactivity and a potential failure of luteolysis. The mare’s persistent estrus behavior, coupled with the absence of palpable luteal tissue and the presence of follicular activity, suggests a disruption in the normal progesterone production and feedback mechanisms. The key to understanding the correct approach lies in recognizing the hormonal milieu. During the luteal phase, progesterone from the corpus luteum (CL) exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary, suppressing GnRH and LH/FSH release, thereby preventing follicular development and estrus. The absence of a functional CL, as indicated by the lack of palpable luteal tissue and the mare’s estrus, means this negative feedback is absent. However, the mare is not cycling normally, implying a problem beyond simple anestrus. The presence of follicular waves without ovulation suggests a potential issue with LH surge generation or responsiveness. Administering prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) is indicated to lyse a corpus luteum if one were present. However, in this case, the absence of a CL makes PGF2α ineffective for inducing luteolysis. The mare’s persistent estrus and follicular activity, without a CL, points towards a lack of progesterone support. Therefore, exogenous progesterone administration would be the most logical step to mimic the luteal phase, provide negative feedback, and potentially allow for the resumption of normal cyclic activity by suppressing follicular development and estrus, thereby creating an environment conducive to the development of a functional CL in a subsequent cycle. This approach aims to re-establish the hormonal balance necessary for ovulation and the establishment of a new luteal phase.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare, bred on day 14 of her cycle, has not returned to estrus. A transrectal ultrasound performed on day 25 of gestation reveals a uterine tone consistent with diestrus, but no identifiable embryonic vesicle. Serum progesterone levels are persistently elevated at 8 ng/mL, a level typically maintained throughout diestrus or early pregnancy. The mare’s owner wishes to rebreed her as soon as possible. Considering the diagnostic findings and the objective of re-establishing cyclicity for timely rebreeding, what is the most appropriate therapeutic intervention?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged luteal phase and potential embryonic loss. The mare’s progesterone levels remain elevated beyond the expected period for a viable pregnancy, and ultrasound reveals the absence of a conceptus. This suggests a failure of pregnancy recognition or a very early embryonic demise that was not detected. In such cases, the primary goal is to terminate the luteal phase to induce estrus and allow for rebreeding. Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) is the standard therapeutic agent for luteolysis in mares, as it directly targets the corpus luteum (CL) and promotes its regression. The typical dose for PGF2α administration in mares is 1 mg intramuscularly. Administering a higher dose, such as 5 mg, is not indicated for routine luteolysis and could lead to excessive systemic side effects without providing a significant therapeutic advantage for inducing estrus. GnRH analogs, while involved in the reproductive axis, do not directly cause luteolysis in the same manner as PGF2α. Progesterone supplementation would be counterproductive as the objective is to reduce progesterone levels to allow for estrus. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention to resolve the prolonged luteal phase and facilitate rebreeding is the administration of PGF2α at its standard therapeutic dose.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged luteal phase and potential embryonic loss. The mare’s progesterone levels remain elevated beyond the expected period for a viable pregnancy, and ultrasound reveals the absence of a conceptus. This suggests a failure of pregnancy recognition or a very early embryonic demise that was not detected. In such cases, the primary goal is to terminate the luteal phase to induce estrus and allow for rebreeding. Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) is the standard therapeutic agent for luteolysis in mares, as it directly targets the corpus luteum (CL) and promotes its regression. The typical dose for PGF2α administration in mares is 1 mg intramuscularly. Administering a higher dose, such as 5 mg, is not indicated for routine luteolysis and could lead to excessive systemic side effects without providing a significant therapeutic advantage for inducing estrus. GnRH analogs, while involved in the reproductive axis, do not directly cause luteolysis in the same manner as PGF2α. Progesterone supplementation would be counterproductive as the objective is to reduce progesterone levels to allow for estrus. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention to resolve the prolonged luteal phase and facilitate rebreeding is the administration of PGF2α at its standard therapeutic dose.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare, previously bred without success, presents with a history of regular 21-day estrous cycles. Ultrasonographic examination reveals a dominant follicle approaching ovulation, and subsequent examination 14 days post-ovulation shows a well-formed corpus luteum (CL) but no identifiable embryo. Repeat ultrasonography 7 days later reveals a regressed CL and the presence of a new dominant follicle, indicating the mare has returned to estrus. This pattern has repeated over three cycles. Based on this reproductive history and diagnostic findings, which therapeutic strategy is most likely to facilitate successful pregnancy maintenance in this mare, considering the Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University’s emphasis on evidence-based reproductive management?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs consistent with a luteal phase defect or inadequate progesterone production during the luteal phase, leading to early embryonic loss. The mare’s estrous cycle is regular, and ovulation occurs, but pregnancy is not maintained. This points towards a failure in the luteal support necessary for pregnancy establishment and maintenance. Progesterone is the primary hormone responsible for preparing the endometrium for implantation and maintaining pregnancy by suppressing uterine contractility and preventing estrus. Inadequate progesterone production by the corpus luteum (CL) or premature luteolysis can result in embryonic mortality. The mare’s history of regular cycles and ovulation suggests the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis is functioning to initiate follicular development and ovulation. However, the lack of sustained pregnancy indicates a problem with the corpus luteum’s ability to produce sufficient progesterone. This could be due to a functional luteal insufficiency, where the CL is morphologically present but produces suboptimal levels of progesterone, or an issue with the luteolytic feedback mechanism, leading to premature regression of the CL. Considering the options, administering exogenous progesterone during the luteal phase is a direct therapeutic approach to supplement or replace the mare’s endogenous progesterone production. This would provide the necessary hormonal support for the endometrium and help maintain pregnancy. The timing of administration would be crucial, typically starting after ovulation and continuing until pregnancy can be confirmed and is stable, or until the endogenous CL can adequately support the pregnancy. The correct approach is to administer exogenous progesterone to support the luteal phase. This directly addresses the suspected deficiency in progesterone production, which is critical for maintaining pregnancy in mares. This intervention aims to mimic the hormonal environment created by a healthy corpus luteum, thereby preventing early embryonic loss and promoting successful pregnancy establishment.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs consistent with a luteal phase defect or inadequate progesterone production during the luteal phase, leading to early embryonic loss. The mare’s estrous cycle is regular, and ovulation occurs, but pregnancy is not maintained. This points towards a failure in the luteal support necessary for pregnancy establishment and maintenance. Progesterone is the primary hormone responsible for preparing the endometrium for implantation and maintaining pregnancy by suppressing uterine contractility and preventing estrus. Inadequate progesterone production by the corpus luteum (CL) or premature luteolysis can result in embryonic mortality. The mare’s history of regular cycles and ovulation suggests the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis is functioning to initiate follicular development and ovulation. However, the lack of sustained pregnancy indicates a problem with the corpus luteum’s ability to produce sufficient progesterone. This could be due to a functional luteal insufficiency, where the CL is morphologically present but produces suboptimal levels of progesterone, or an issue with the luteolytic feedback mechanism, leading to premature regression of the CL. Considering the options, administering exogenous progesterone during the luteal phase is a direct therapeutic approach to supplement or replace the mare’s endogenous progesterone production. This would provide the necessary hormonal support for the endometrium and help maintain pregnancy. The timing of administration would be crucial, typically starting after ovulation and continuing until pregnancy can be confirmed and is stable, or until the endogenous CL can adequately support the pregnancy. The correct approach is to administer exogenous progesterone to support the luteal phase. This directly addresses the suspected deficiency in progesterone production, which is critical for maintaining pregnancy in mares. This intervention aims to mimic the hormonal environment created by a healthy corpus luteum, thereby preventing early embryonic loss and promoting successful pregnancy establishment.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
A seasoned theriogenologist at Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University is presented with a multiparous Quarter Horse mare showing significant vulvar relaxation, pronounced udder development with waxing, and a softened, partially dilated cervix. The mare is approximately 340 days into gestation. Based on the established endocrinology of equine parturition, what is the primary initiating event that has most likely led to this mare’s current physiological state, culminating in the imminent expulsion of the fetus?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of impending parturition, including vulvar relaxation, mammary gland engorgement, and cervical dilation. The question probes the understanding of the physiological cascade leading to foaling. The critical event initiating parturition is the maturation of the fetal hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis, leading to increased fetal cortisol production. This cortisol surge acts on the placenta, causing a decrease in progesterone production and an increase in estrogen synthesis. Estrogen promotes uterine contractility by increasing gap junction formation between myometrial cells and sensitizing the uterus to oxytocin. Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) is then released from the endometrium, which causes luteolysis (regression of the corpus luteum), further reducing progesterone levels and inducing myometrial contractions. Oxytocin, released from the mare’s posterior pituitary in response to rising estrogen and cervical stimulation, then plays a crucial role in the rhythmic uterine contractions that expel the fetus. Therefore, the initial trigger for this cascade, as indicated by the physiological changes observed, is the maturation of the fetal HPA axis and the subsequent hormonal shifts.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of impending parturition, including vulvar relaxation, mammary gland engorgement, and cervical dilation. The question probes the understanding of the physiological cascade leading to foaling. The critical event initiating parturition is the maturation of the fetal hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis, leading to increased fetal cortisol production. This cortisol surge acts on the placenta, causing a decrease in progesterone production and an increase in estrogen synthesis. Estrogen promotes uterine contractility by increasing gap junction formation between myometrial cells and sensitizing the uterus to oxytocin. Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) is then released from the endometrium, which causes luteolysis (regression of the corpus luteum), further reducing progesterone levels and inducing myometrial contractions. Oxytocin, released from the mare’s posterior pituitary in response to rising estrogen and cervical stimulation, then plays a crucial role in the rhythmic uterine contractions that expel the fetus. Therefore, the initial trigger for this cascade, as indicated by the physiological changes observed, is the maturation of the fetal HPA axis and the subsequent hormonal shifts.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare, presented for breeding, has been in prolonged estrus for over two weeks, showing increased receptivity to stallions but failing to conceive after multiple attempts. Transrectal ultrasonography reveals multiple follicles ranging from 30-45 mm in diameter on both ovaries, with no evidence of a corpus luteum. Serum hormone analysis indicates elevated estradiol levels and low progesterone. Previous attempts at estrus synchronization using prostaglandin F2α analogs have been unsuccessful in inducing ovulation. Considering the mare’s clinical presentation and diagnostic findings, what is the most appropriate next step to facilitate ovulation and restore normal estrous cyclicity?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged estrus and a lack of response to typical estrus synchronization protocols. The ultrasound findings of multiple follicular waves without ovulation, coupled with elevated estradiol levels and a thickened endometrium, strongly suggest a persistent follicular cyst or a condition mimicking one. The absence of a corpus luteum on ultrasound and low progesterone levels further support the lack of ovulation. In such cases, the primary therapeutic goal is to induce ovulation and restore normal cyclicity. While prostaglandins can lyse a corpus luteum, they are ineffective in the absence of one. GnRH administration is the most direct method to trigger the LH surge necessary for ovulation in mares with persistent follicular activity. The correct approach involves administering GnRH to stimulate the pituitary to release LH, which will then act on the dominant follicle(s) to induce ovulation. This is a standard treatment for anovulatory estrus or persistent follicular cysts in mares.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged estrus and a lack of response to typical estrus synchronization protocols. The ultrasound findings of multiple follicular waves without ovulation, coupled with elevated estradiol levels and a thickened endometrium, strongly suggest a persistent follicular cyst or a condition mimicking one. The absence of a corpus luteum on ultrasound and low progesterone levels further support the lack of ovulation. In such cases, the primary therapeutic goal is to induce ovulation and restore normal cyclicity. While prostaglandins can lyse a corpus luteum, they are ineffective in the absence of one. GnRH administration is the most direct method to trigger the LH surge necessary for ovulation in mares with persistent follicular activity. The correct approach involves administering GnRH to stimulate the pituitary to release LH, which will then act on the dominant follicle(s) to induce ovulation. This is a standard treatment for anovulatory estrus or persistent follicular cysts in mares.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare was inseminated on two occasions during estrus. On day 18 post-insemination, palpation reveals a palpable corpus luteum (CL) on the left ovary, and ultrasound examination shows no evidence of embryonic vesicles. A serum progesterone assay confirms elevated levels. Given this presentation, what is the most appropriate therapeutic intervention to facilitate re-breeding?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged luteal phase and potential embryonic loss. The primary diagnostic finding is the presence of a palpable corpus luteum (CL) on day 18 post-insemination, coupled with a negative pregnancy ultrasound. In a normal estrous cycle, the CL would regress around day 14-16 if pregnancy does not occur, leading to estrus. The persistence of a CL beyond this period, without evidence of pregnancy, suggests either a failure of luteolysis or a very early embryonic loss that did not trigger a luteolytic signal. The mare’s elevated progesterone levels, confirmed by assay, further support the presence of functional luteal tissue. The goal is to induce luteolysis and return the mare to estrus for re-breeding. Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) is the primary endogenous luteolytic agent in mares, acting on luteal oxytocin receptors to induce regression of the CL. Exogenous administration of PGF2α (e.g., dinoprost, cloprostenol) is the standard treatment to induce CL regression and subsequent estrus. The expected outcome of PGF2α administration is the regression of the persistent CL within 2-5 days, followed by follicular development and estrus, typically within 4-7 days. Therefore, the most appropriate next step is to administer PGF2α.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged luteal phase and potential embryonic loss. The primary diagnostic finding is the presence of a palpable corpus luteum (CL) on day 18 post-insemination, coupled with a negative pregnancy ultrasound. In a normal estrous cycle, the CL would regress around day 14-16 if pregnancy does not occur, leading to estrus. The persistence of a CL beyond this period, without evidence of pregnancy, suggests either a failure of luteolysis or a very early embryonic loss that did not trigger a luteolytic signal. The mare’s elevated progesterone levels, confirmed by assay, further support the presence of functional luteal tissue. The goal is to induce luteolysis and return the mare to estrus for re-breeding. Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) is the primary endogenous luteolytic agent in mares, acting on luteal oxytocin receptors to induce regression of the CL. Exogenous administration of PGF2α (e.g., dinoprost, cloprostenol) is the standard treatment to induce CL regression and subsequent estrus. The expected outcome of PGF2α administration is the regression of the persistent CL within 2-5 days, followed by follicular development and estrus, typically within 4-7 days. Therefore, the most appropriate next step is to administer PGF2α.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A 12-year-old Quarter Horse mare, managed under a consistent 16-hour light exposure daily, has not exhibited estrus behavior or developed palpable follicles for three consecutive estrous cycles, as determined by routine reproductive examinations. Initial diagnostic attempts involved administering a standard dose of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) intravenously. Following this administration, no significant changes in ovarian size or follicular activity were observed via transrectal ultrasonography over the subsequent 72 hours. Considering the mare’s history and the diagnostic outcome, which of the following represents the most probable underlying physiological impediment to her reproductive cyclicity at Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University’s advanced theriogenology program?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of estrus suppression and a lack of follicular development despite normal photoperiod. This points towards a potential issue with the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. The absence of follicular growth and estrus behavior, coupled with a lack of response to exogenous GnRH, suggests a primary problem at the level of the pituitary gland or the ovaries themselves, rather than a hypothalamic GnRH deficiency. If the pituitary were responsive, GnRH administration would stimulate LH and FSH release, leading to follicular development. Since this did not occur, we must consider conditions that impair pituitary function or ovarian responsiveness. Pituitary adenomas, particularly those secreting growth hormone or ACTH, can disrupt the normal feedback loops and hormone production necessary for cycling. While ovarian cysts can cause anestrus, they typically involve persistent follicular or luteal structures, which is not indicated here. Uterine pathology, such as endometritis, can lead to anestrus but usually does not prevent follicular development if the pituitary is functional. Therefore, a pituitary dysfunction, such as a non-functional adenoma or a general hypopituitarism, is the most likely underlying cause preventing the mare from cycling and responding to GnRH stimulation.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of estrus suppression and a lack of follicular development despite normal photoperiod. This points towards a potential issue with the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. The absence of follicular growth and estrus behavior, coupled with a lack of response to exogenous GnRH, suggests a primary problem at the level of the pituitary gland or the ovaries themselves, rather than a hypothalamic GnRH deficiency. If the pituitary were responsive, GnRH administration would stimulate LH and FSH release, leading to follicular development. Since this did not occur, we must consider conditions that impair pituitary function or ovarian responsiveness. Pituitary adenomas, particularly those secreting growth hormone or ACTH, can disrupt the normal feedback loops and hormone production necessary for cycling. While ovarian cysts can cause anestrus, they typically involve persistent follicular or luteal structures, which is not indicated here. Uterine pathology, such as endometritis, can lead to anestrus but usually does not prevent follicular development if the pituitary is functional. Therefore, a pituitary dysfunction, such as a non-functional adenoma or a general hypopituitarism, is the most likely underlying cause preventing the mare from cycling and responding to GnRH stimulation.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Consider a 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare presented for routine reproductive evaluation. Ultrasonographic examination reveals a dominant follicle measuring 45 mm in diameter. Hormonal assays indicate plasma estradiol levels consistent with advanced follicular development. Based on the Diplomat, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University’s emphasis on understanding the nuanced endocrinology of equine reproduction, which of the following physiological states is most likely to precede ovulation in this mare within the next 24-48 hours?
Correct
The question probes the understanding of the hormonal cascade regulating the ovulatory surge in mares, specifically focusing on the interplay between estradiol and progesterone in the context of follicular development. During the follicular phase of the mare’s estrous cycle, growing follicles produce increasing amounts of estradiol. This rising estradiol level, when sustained and above a certain threshold, exerts a positive feedback effect on the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. This positive feedback leads to a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH) and, to a lesser extent, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). The LH surge is the primary trigger for ovulation. However, the presence of progesterone, even at low levels, can significantly influence the timing and magnitude of this LH surge. In mares, progesterone from previous luteal phases or from a dominant follicle in the early follicular phase can exert a negative feedback effect on the hypothalamus, delaying the LH surge. Conversely, if progesterone levels are sufficiently low, the positive feedback of estradiol can manifest more readily. Therefore, a scenario where a mare has a large, mature follicle (indicated by high estradiol) but has recently experienced luteolysis (low progesterone) would be most conducive to an imminent LH surge and subsequent ovulation. The presence of a corpus luteum (CL) would maintain progesterone levels, which would suppress the LH surge despite the presence of a large follicle. Similarly, a small follicle would not produce sufficient estradiol to trigger the LH surge. A mare with a regressed follicle would have low estradiol and no LH surge. The critical factor for an impending ovulation is the combination of a mature follicle and the absence of significant progesterone suppression.
Incorrect
The question probes the understanding of the hormonal cascade regulating the ovulatory surge in mares, specifically focusing on the interplay between estradiol and progesterone in the context of follicular development. During the follicular phase of the mare’s estrous cycle, growing follicles produce increasing amounts of estradiol. This rising estradiol level, when sustained and above a certain threshold, exerts a positive feedback effect on the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. This positive feedback leads to a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH) and, to a lesser extent, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). The LH surge is the primary trigger for ovulation. However, the presence of progesterone, even at low levels, can significantly influence the timing and magnitude of this LH surge. In mares, progesterone from previous luteal phases or from a dominant follicle in the early follicular phase can exert a negative feedback effect on the hypothalamus, delaying the LH surge. Conversely, if progesterone levels are sufficiently low, the positive feedback of estradiol can manifest more readily. Therefore, a scenario where a mare has a large, mature follicle (indicated by high estradiol) but has recently experienced luteolysis (low progesterone) would be most conducive to an imminent LH surge and subsequent ovulation. The presence of a corpus luteum (CL) would maintain progesterone levels, which would suppress the LH surge despite the presence of a large follicle. Similarly, a small follicle would not produce sufficient estradiol to trigger the LH surge. A mare with a regressed follicle would have low estradiol and no LH surge. The critical factor for an impending ovulation is the combination of a mature follicle and the absence of significant progesterone suppression.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A 7-year-old Quarter Horse mare, bred on day 14 of her cycle, was presented for examination on day 25 post-breeding. Ultrasonographic evaluation revealed a single corpus luteum (CL) on the left ovary and no evidence of embryonic vesicle. The mare had not exhibited estrus since the initial breeding. Considering the mare’s prolonged luteal phase and the objective of re-establishing normal estrous cyclicity for subsequent breeding attempts at Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University, what is the most appropriate therapeutic intervention on day 30 post-breeding if the mare still has not shown estrus and a palpable CL is still present?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged luteal phase and potential embryonic loss, indicated by the absence of estrus and a palpable corpus luteum (CL) on day 25 post-breeding. The primary goal is to re-establish cyclicity. Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) is the key hormone for luteolysis, causing regression of the CL and subsequent decline in progesterone. In a normal estrous cycle, PGF2α is released from the uterine endometrium around day 14-16, leading to CL regression and estrus. If pregnancy occurs, the conceptus produces interferon-tau, which signals the uterus to suppress PGF2α release, maintaining the CL. In this case, the prolonged luteal phase suggests either a viable pregnancy or a persistent CL. Administering PGF2α will induce luteolysis if a functional CL is present. Following luteolysis, a new follicular wave will emerge, leading to estrus and ovulation. The expected timeframe for estrus after PGF2α administration in a cycling mare with a functional CL is typically 2-5 days. Therefore, re-administering PGF2α on day 30, assuming the initial treatment on day 25 was intended to induce luteolysis and the mare has not yet shown estrus, would be redundant if the first dose was effective. However, if the mare was not in estrus or did not ovulate after the first PGF2α, or if the CL was not responsive, a second dose might be considered after a sufficient interval to allow for a new follicular wave and CL development. Given the information, the most logical next step to re-establish cyclicity, assuming the initial PGF2α was administered correctly and the mare did not conceive or lost the pregnancy, is to wait for the development of a new dominant follicle and then administer PGF2α again if a CL forms, or to simply wait for natural estrus if the initial PGF2α was effective but ovulation did not occur or was not timed correctly. However, the question implies a need for intervention to break the cycle. If the initial PGF2α on day 25 was to induce luteolysis, and no estrus occurred by day 30, it suggests either the CL was not responsive, or a new CL formed rapidly, or the mare was not in the correct stage of the cycle for PGF2α to be effective. A more conservative approach to re-establish cyclicity without further diagnostic information would be to wait for natural estrus and then manage accordingly. However, if the goal is to *force* cyclicity, and assuming the initial PGF2α was given to a mare with a CL, and no estrus occurred, a second dose of PGF2α might be considered after allowing for a follicular wave and potential CL formation. The most common practice to induce luteolysis and return to estrus in a mare with a persistent CL is a single injection of PGF2α. If the mare is not cycling, and a CL is present, PGF2α is indicated. If the mare is not showing estrus after PGF2α, it implies either the CL was not responsive or a new CL has formed. Without further information, the most direct approach to address a prolonged luteal phase and induce estrus is to ensure luteolysis. If the initial PGF2α was given on day 25 and no estrus by day 30, it implies the mare is still under the influence of progesterone from a CL. A second administration of PGF2α on day 30 would be appropriate if the goal is to break this luteal phase. The expected response to PGF2α is luteolysis followed by estrus within 2-5 days. Therefore, the correct approach is to administer PGF2α again.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged luteal phase and potential embryonic loss, indicated by the absence of estrus and a palpable corpus luteum (CL) on day 25 post-breeding. The primary goal is to re-establish cyclicity. Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) is the key hormone for luteolysis, causing regression of the CL and subsequent decline in progesterone. In a normal estrous cycle, PGF2α is released from the uterine endometrium around day 14-16, leading to CL regression and estrus. If pregnancy occurs, the conceptus produces interferon-tau, which signals the uterus to suppress PGF2α release, maintaining the CL. In this case, the prolonged luteal phase suggests either a viable pregnancy or a persistent CL. Administering PGF2α will induce luteolysis if a functional CL is present. Following luteolysis, a new follicular wave will emerge, leading to estrus and ovulation. The expected timeframe for estrus after PGF2α administration in a cycling mare with a functional CL is typically 2-5 days. Therefore, re-administering PGF2α on day 30, assuming the initial treatment on day 25 was intended to induce luteolysis and the mare has not yet shown estrus, would be redundant if the first dose was effective. However, if the mare was not in estrus or did not ovulate after the first PGF2α, or if the CL was not responsive, a second dose might be considered after a sufficient interval to allow for a new follicular wave and CL development. Given the information, the most logical next step to re-establish cyclicity, assuming the initial PGF2α was administered correctly and the mare did not conceive or lost the pregnancy, is to wait for the development of a new dominant follicle and then administer PGF2α again if a CL forms, or to simply wait for natural estrus if the initial PGF2α was effective but ovulation did not occur or was not timed correctly. However, the question implies a need for intervention to break the cycle. If the initial PGF2α on day 25 was to induce luteolysis, and no estrus occurred by day 30, it suggests either the CL was not responsive, or a new CL formed rapidly, or the mare was not in the correct stage of the cycle for PGF2α to be effective. A more conservative approach to re-establish cyclicity without further diagnostic information would be to wait for natural estrus and then manage accordingly. However, if the goal is to *force* cyclicity, and assuming the initial PGF2α was given to a mare with a CL, and no estrus occurred, a second dose of PGF2α might be considered after allowing for a follicular wave and potential CL formation. The most common practice to induce luteolysis and return to estrus in a mare with a persistent CL is a single injection of PGF2α. If the mare is not cycling, and a CL is present, PGF2α is indicated. If the mare is not showing estrus after PGF2α, it implies either the CL was not responsive or a new CL has formed. Without further information, the most direct approach to address a prolonged luteal phase and induce estrus is to ensure luteolysis. If the initial PGF2α was given on day 25 and no estrus by day 30, it implies the mare is still under the influence of progesterone from a CL. A second administration of PGF2α on day 30 would be appropriate if the goal is to break this luteal phase. The expected response to PGF2α is luteolysis followed by estrus within 2-5 days. Therefore, the correct approach is to administer PGF2α again.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
A 12-year-old Quarter Horse mare is presented for evaluation due to a history of prolonged periods of estrus, often lasting 10-14 days, with a poor response to typical prostaglandin-based estrus synchronization protocols. On transrectal ultrasonography, the ovaries appear enlarged, displaying numerous follicles ranging from 8 to 15 mm in diameter, with no single dominant follicle evident. The uterine endometrium is observed to be thickened and edematous, and no corpus luteum is detected. What is the most likely diagnosis for this mare’s reproductive condition, as would be considered within the advanced diagnostic framework at Diplomate, American College of Theriogenologists (DACT) University?
Correct
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged estrus and a lack of response to standard estrus synchronization protocols. The ultrasound findings reveal multiple follicular structures of varying sizes, with no dominant follicle clearly identifiable, and a thickened uterine endometrium. This pattern, coupled with the persistent estrus, strongly suggests a disruption in the normal ovulatory cycle, likely due to a failure in the LH surge mechanism or a persistent follicular phase. The absence of a corpus luteum on ultrasound further supports this. Considering the options, persistent follicular cysts are characterized by continuous estrogen production without ovulation, leading to prolonged estrus and potential anestrus or irregular cycles. The ultrasound findings of multiple, non-ovulatory follicles and a thickened endometrium are consistent with this diagnosis. Treatment often involves hormonal intervention to induce ovulation or luteinization. Option b) is incorrect because pyometra is a uterine infection characterized by pus accumulation, typically associated with a closed cervix and a corpus luteum, which is not indicated here. Option c) is incorrect as a luteal cyst would involve a functional corpus luteum, which would produce progesterone and lead to diestrus or anestrus, not prolonged estrus. Option d) is incorrect because uterine fibrosis, while affecting fertility, does not directly cause persistent estrus or the specific follicular dynamics observed. Therefore, persistent follicular cysts are the most fitting diagnosis based on the presented clinical and ultrasonographic evidence.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a mare exhibiting signs of prolonged estrus and a lack of response to standard estrus synchronization protocols. The ultrasound findings reveal multiple follicular structures of varying sizes, with no dominant follicle clearly identifiable, and a thickened uterine endometrium. This pattern, coupled with the persistent estrus, strongly suggests a disruption in the normal ovulatory cycle, likely due to a failure in the LH surge mechanism or a persistent follicular phase. The absence of a corpus luteum on ultrasound further supports this. Considering the options, persistent follicular cysts are characterized by continuous estrogen production without ovulation, leading to prolonged estrus and potential anestrus or irregular cycles. The ultrasound findings of multiple, non-ovulatory follicles and a thickened endometrium are consistent with this diagnosis. Treatment often involves hormonal intervention to induce ovulation or luteinization. Option b) is incorrect because pyometra is a uterine infection characterized by pus accumulation, typically associated with a closed cervix and a corpus luteum, which is not indicated here. Option c) is incorrect as a luteal cyst would involve a functional corpus luteum, which would produce progesterone and lead to diestrus or anestrus, not prolonged estrus. Option d) is incorrect because uterine fibrosis, while affecting fertility, does not directly cause persistent estrus or the specific follicular dynamics observed. Therefore, persistent follicular cysts are the most fitting diagnosis based on the presented clinical and ultrasonographic evidence.