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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider a laboring patient at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s affiliated hospital who presents with recurrent, prolonged variable decelerations and a baseline fetal heart rate that has trended towards 110 beats per minute over the last hour. The patient received an intramuscular dose of meperidine \(100\) mg approximately \(45\) minutes ago for pain management. What is the most critical immediate consideration for the obstetric nurse when interpreting these findings in the context of the patient’s recent medication administration?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing recurrent, non-reassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) patterns during labor, specifically variable decelerations that are frequent and prolonged, coupled with a baseline FHR that has shifted to the lower end of the normal range. The patient is also noted to have received a significant dose of an opioid analgesic approximately 45 minutes prior to the current FHR assessment. The core issue is to identify the most likely contributing factor to the observed FHR changes, considering the patient’s recent medication administration. Opioid analgesics, when administered close to the time of fetal monitoring, can depress the fetal central nervous system, leading to decreased fetal heart rate variability and potentially contributing to non-reassuring patterns like variable decelerations due to altered fetal response to contractions or cord compression. While other factors like cord compression or placental insufficiency can cause variable decelerations, the timing of the opioid administration makes it a primary suspect for exacerbating or directly causing the observed FHR changes. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing action is to assess the maternal vital signs and the time of the last opioid dose to correlate with the fetal response. This approach directly addresses the potential iatrogenic cause of the FHR pattern.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing recurrent, non-reassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) patterns during labor, specifically variable decelerations that are frequent and prolonged, coupled with a baseline FHR that has shifted to the lower end of the normal range. The patient is also noted to have received a significant dose of an opioid analgesic approximately 45 minutes prior to the current FHR assessment. The core issue is to identify the most likely contributing factor to the observed FHR changes, considering the patient’s recent medication administration. Opioid analgesics, when administered close to the time of fetal monitoring, can depress the fetal central nervous system, leading to decreased fetal heart rate variability and potentially contributing to non-reassuring patterns like variable decelerations due to altered fetal response to contractions or cord compression. While other factors like cord compression or placental insufficiency can cause variable decelerations, the timing of the opioid administration makes it a primary suspect for exacerbating or directly causing the observed FHR changes. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing action is to assess the maternal vital signs and the time of the last opioid dose to correlate with the fetal response. This approach directly addresses the potential iatrogenic cause of the FHR pattern.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider a 32-year-old nulliparous patient at 34 weeks gestation presenting to the labor and delivery unit with a sudden onset of a severe frontal headache, blurred vision, and epigastric pain. Her vital signs reveal a blood pressure of \(170/110\) mmHg, pulse of 92 bpm, respirations of 18/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. A dipstick urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. Based on the Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s established protocols for managing hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, what is the most critical immediate nursing intervention to implement while awaiting further physician orders?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric discomfort, coupled with a significantly elevated blood pressure of \(170/110\) mmHg and proteinuria. These clinical manifestations are highly indicative of severe preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy characterized by new-onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Severe preeclampsia is defined by specific criteria, including a blood pressure of \( \geq 160/110 \) mmHg, thrombocytopenia (platelet count \( < 100,000/ \mu L \)), impaired liver function, new-onset renal insufficiency, pulmonary edema, or cerebral symptoms. The patient's symptoms align with the severe category. The management of severe preeclampsia necessitates immediate intervention to prevent progression to eclampsia, which involves seizures. The cornerstone of medical management for severe preeclampsia is the administration of magnesium sulfate, an anticonvulsant that also helps to lower blood pressure. Intravenous administration is the preferred route for rapid therapeutic levels. Alongside magnesium sulfate, antihypertensive medications are crucial to manage the elevated blood pressure and reduce the risk of cerebrovascular events. Labetalol is a commonly used beta-blocker with alpha-blocking activity that effectively lowers blood pressure without causing significant fetal bradycardia. Hydralazine is another option, acting as a direct vasodilator. The decision to deliver the fetus is also a critical component of management, particularly if the gestational age is viable and the maternal condition is unstable. However, the immediate priority to prevent neurological complications is seizure prophylaxis. Therefore, the most appropriate initial nursing action, in collaboration with the medical team, is to administer magnesium sulfate and initiate antihypertensive therapy.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric discomfort, coupled with a significantly elevated blood pressure of \(170/110\) mmHg and proteinuria. These clinical manifestations are highly indicative of severe preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy characterized by new-onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Severe preeclampsia is defined by specific criteria, including a blood pressure of \( \geq 160/110 \) mmHg, thrombocytopenia (platelet count \( < 100,000/ \mu L \)), impaired liver function, new-onset renal insufficiency, pulmonary edema, or cerebral symptoms. The patient's symptoms align with the severe category. The management of severe preeclampsia necessitates immediate intervention to prevent progression to eclampsia, which involves seizures. The cornerstone of medical management for severe preeclampsia is the administration of magnesium sulfate, an anticonvulsant that also helps to lower blood pressure. Intravenous administration is the preferred route for rapid therapeutic levels. Alongside magnesium sulfate, antihypertensive medications are crucial to manage the elevated blood pressure and reduce the risk of cerebrovascular events. Labetalol is a commonly used beta-blocker with alpha-blocking activity that effectively lowers blood pressure without causing significant fetal bradycardia. Hydralazine is another option, acting as a direct vasodilator. The decision to deliver the fetus is also a critical component of management, particularly if the gestational age is viable and the maternal condition is unstable. However, the immediate priority to prevent neurological complications is seizure prophylaxis. Therefore, the most appropriate initial nursing action, in collaboration with the medical team, is to administer magnesium sulfate and initiate antihypertensive therapy.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider a 32-year-old G2P1 at 34 weeks gestation presenting to the labor and delivery unit with a sudden onset of a severe, persistent occipital headache, blurred vision with intermittent flashing lights (scotoma), and sharp epigastric discomfort. Her vital signs reveal a blood pressure of \( 165/105 \) mmHg, pulse of 92 bpm, respirations of 18/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. A urinalysis confirms 3+ proteinuria. Based on the comprehensive maternal assessment principles taught at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, what is the most critical immediate nursing intervention to implement for this patient?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe, persistent headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric pain, coupled with a significant elevation in blood pressure (165/105 mmHg) and proteinuria (3+). These clinical manifestations are highly indicative of severe preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy characterized by new-onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Severe preeclampsia is defined by specific criteria, including blood pressure readings of \( \geq 160/110 \) mmHg on two occasions at least 4 hours apart (unless antihypertensive therapy is initiated), or \( \geq 140/90 \) mmHg on two occasions at least 4 hours apart, along with symptoms such as severe headaches, visual disturbances, epigastric or right upper quadrant pain, or impaired liver function tests, and laboratory abnormalities like thrombocytopenia, impaired liver function, or new-onset renal insufficiency. The presence of a scotoma and epigastric pain, alongside the elevated blood pressure and proteinuria, strongly points to central nervous system and hepatic involvement, hallmarks of severe preeclampsia. The immediate management priority in such a case, as per Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s emphasis on evidence-based practice and patient safety, is to prevent progression to eclampsia and manage the hypertensive crisis. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia due to its efficacy in reducing the risk of eclamptic seizures. Antihypertensive medications are also crucial to lower the blood pressure to a safe level, typically below \( 160/110 \) mmHg, to prevent cerebrovascular complications. While delivery is the ultimate cure for preeclampsia, immediate stabilization of the mother is paramount. Therefore, administering magnesium sulfate and initiating antihypertensive therapy are the most critical initial nursing interventions.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe, persistent headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric pain, coupled with a significant elevation in blood pressure (165/105 mmHg) and proteinuria (3+). These clinical manifestations are highly indicative of severe preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy characterized by new-onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Severe preeclampsia is defined by specific criteria, including blood pressure readings of \( \geq 160/110 \) mmHg on two occasions at least 4 hours apart (unless antihypertensive therapy is initiated), or \( \geq 140/90 \) mmHg on two occasions at least 4 hours apart, along with symptoms such as severe headaches, visual disturbances, epigastric or right upper quadrant pain, or impaired liver function tests, and laboratory abnormalities like thrombocytopenia, impaired liver function, or new-onset renal insufficiency. The presence of a scotoma and epigastric pain, alongside the elevated blood pressure and proteinuria, strongly points to central nervous system and hepatic involvement, hallmarks of severe preeclampsia. The immediate management priority in such a case, as per Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s emphasis on evidence-based practice and patient safety, is to prevent progression to eclampsia and manage the hypertensive crisis. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia due to its efficacy in reducing the risk of eclamptic seizures. Antihypertensive medications are also crucial to lower the blood pressure to a safe level, typically below \( 160/110 \) mmHg, to prevent cerebrovascular complications. While delivery is the ultimate cure for preeclampsia, immediate stabilization of the mother is paramount. Therefore, administering magnesium sulfate and initiating antihypertensive therapy are the most critical initial nursing interventions.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
A 32-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery unit with a sudden onset of a severe frontal headache, blurred vision, and epigastric discomfort. Her current vital signs are: Blood Pressure 170/110 mmHg, Heart Rate 98 bpm, Respiratory Rate 20 bpm, and Oxygen Saturation 98% on room air. A dipstick urinalysis reveals 3+ proteinuria. Considering the potential for imminent eclamptic seizure, which of the following nursing actions is the most critical immediate intervention to implement at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric pain, alongside elevated blood pressure and proteinuria. These are classic signs and symptoms indicative of severe preeclampsia. The primary goal in managing severe preeclampsia is to prevent progression to eclampsia, which involves seizures, and to stabilize the maternal condition for potential delivery. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis and treatment in preeclampsia. Its mechanism of action involves blocking neuromuscular transmission and reducing the central nervous system’s excitability. While antihypertensive medications are crucial for managing the elevated blood pressure, they do not directly prevent seizures. Amniotomy and oxytocin augmentation are interventions related to labor progression and are not the immediate priority for seizure prevention. Fetal distress, while a concern, is managed concurrently with maternal stabilization. Therefore, initiating magnesium sulfate infusion is the most critical immediate nursing intervention to address the risk of eclampsia.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric pain, alongside elevated blood pressure and proteinuria. These are classic signs and symptoms indicative of severe preeclampsia. The primary goal in managing severe preeclampsia is to prevent progression to eclampsia, which involves seizures, and to stabilize the maternal condition for potential delivery. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis and treatment in preeclampsia. Its mechanism of action involves blocking neuromuscular transmission and reducing the central nervous system’s excitability. While antihypertensive medications are crucial for managing the elevated blood pressure, they do not directly prevent seizures. Amniotomy and oxytocin augmentation are interventions related to labor progression and are not the immediate priority for seizure prevention. Fetal distress, while a concern, is managed concurrently with maternal stabilization. Therefore, initiating magnesium sulfate infusion is the most critical immediate nursing intervention to address the risk of eclampsia.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
A laboring patient at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s affiliated hospital is receiving an oxytocin infusion to augment labor. Suddenly, the electronic fetal monitor displays recurrent late decelerations with absent baseline variability. The patient reports feeling a strong, prolonged contraction. What is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention to address this concerning fetal heart rate pattern?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a significant drop in fetal heart rate (FHR) during labor, characterized by late decelerations and minimal variability, following oxytocin administration. This pattern strongly suggests uteroplacental insufficiency, where the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygenation due to impaired placental perfusion, often exacerbated by uterine hyperstimulation. The immediate nursing priority in such a situation, as emphasized in Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s curriculum on fetal monitoring and emergency interventions, is to optimize fetal oxygenation and reduce uterine activity. This involves discontinuing the oxytocin infusion to decrease uterine contractility and improve intervillous blood flow. Elevating the patient’s lateral position (left lateral recumbent) is crucial to prevent aortocaval compression, which can further compromise maternal venous return and placental perfusion. Administering supplemental oxygen via a non-rebreather mask increases maternal oxygen saturation, thereby enhancing oxygen transfer to the fetus. Lastly, initiating intravenous fluid bolus, typically with a crystalloid solution, can improve maternal circulating volume and blood pressure, indirectly supporting placental perfusion. These interventions are foundational to managing non-reassuring FHR patterns and are directly aligned with the RNC-OB syllabus’s focus on critical assessment and immediate management of fetal distress.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a significant drop in fetal heart rate (FHR) during labor, characterized by late decelerations and minimal variability, following oxytocin administration. This pattern strongly suggests uteroplacental insufficiency, where the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygenation due to impaired placental perfusion, often exacerbated by uterine hyperstimulation. The immediate nursing priority in such a situation, as emphasized in Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s curriculum on fetal monitoring and emergency interventions, is to optimize fetal oxygenation and reduce uterine activity. This involves discontinuing the oxytocin infusion to decrease uterine contractility and improve intervillous blood flow. Elevating the patient’s lateral position (left lateral recumbent) is crucial to prevent aortocaval compression, which can further compromise maternal venous return and placental perfusion. Administering supplemental oxygen via a non-rebreather mask increases maternal oxygen saturation, thereby enhancing oxygen transfer to the fetus. Lastly, initiating intravenous fluid bolus, typically with a crystalloid solution, can improve maternal circulating volume and blood pressure, indirectly supporting placental perfusion. These interventions are foundational to managing non-reassuring FHR patterns and are directly aligned with the RNC-OB syllabus’s focus on critical assessment and immediate management of fetal distress.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider a pregnant individual at 34 weeks gestation presenting to the antepartum clinic with a constellation of symptoms including recurrent severe headaches, intermittent visual disturbances described as “seeing stars,” and persistent epigastric pain. The nurse performs initial assessments. Which of the following findings, if present, would be the most critical to confirm the suspected diagnosis and necessitate immediate escalation of care according to Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s advanced clinical protocols?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing recurrent, severe headaches, visual disturbances, and epigastric discomfort in the third trimester of pregnancy. These symptoms are highly indicative of preeclampsia, a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. The critical assessment finding to guide immediate nursing intervention is the presence of proteinuria, which, when combined with hypertension and other symptoms, confirms the diagnosis of preeclampsia. Proteinuria signifies renal involvement, a hallmark of the condition and a predictor of potential progression to more severe forms like eclampsia. While elevated blood pressure is a key diagnostic criterion, the absence of documented hypertension in the initial presentation means that proteinuria, when present, becomes the most crucial indicator for escalating care. Fetal heart rate variability is important for fetal well-being but does not directly confirm or refute the maternal diagnosis of preeclampsia. Uterine contraction frequency is relevant to labor progress but not the primary diagnostic marker for preeclampsia itself. Therefore, the most critical assessment finding to confirm the suspected diagnosis and direct immediate nursing actions is the presence of protein in the urine.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing recurrent, severe headaches, visual disturbances, and epigastric discomfort in the third trimester of pregnancy. These symptoms are highly indicative of preeclampsia, a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. The critical assessment finding to guide immediate nursing intervention is the presence of proteinuria, which, when combined with hypertension and other symptoms, confirms the diagnosis of preeclampsia. Proteinuria signifies renal involvement, a hallmark of the condition and a predictor of potential progression to more severe forms like eclampsia. While elevated blood pressure is a key diagnostic criterion, the absence of documented hypertension in the initial presentation means that proteinuria, when present, becomes the most crucial indicator for escalating care. Fetal heart rate variability is important for fetal well-being but does not directly confirm or refute the maternal diagnosis of preeclampsia. Uterine contraction frequency is relevant to labor progress but not the primary diagnostic marker for preeclampsia itself. Therefore, the most critical assessment finding to confirm the suspected diagnosis and direct immediate nursing actions is the presence of protein in the urine.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider a 32-year-old patient at 32 weeks gestation presenting to the antepartum unit with bilateral lower extremity edema and a reported blood pressure of \(150/95\) mmHg. She has a documented history of gestational hypertension in a prior pregnancy. Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s curriculum emphasizes a proactive approach to identifying and managing potential maternal complications. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action in this situation?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension in a previous pregnancy, now presenting at 32 weeks gestation with new-onset edema and a blood pressure of \(150/95\) mmHg. The core of the question lies in identifying the most appropriate initial nursing intervention based on these findings and the patient’s history, aligning with Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s emphasis on proactive risk identification and management. Given the patient’s previous gestational hypertension and current elevated blood pressure and edema, the primary concern is the potential development or recurrence of a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy, such as preeclampsia. Therefore, a comprehensive maternal assessment is paramount. This includes a detailed review of her current symptoms (headache, visual disturbances, epigastric pain), a thorough physical examination focusing on reflexes and edema, and laboratory investigations to assess for proteinuria, thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes, and renal function. While other interventions might be considered later, the immediate priority is to gather sufficient data to confirm or rule out a diagnosis and guide subsequent management. This aligns with the RNC-OB syllabus’s focus on comprehensive maternal assessment and identification of high-risk factors. The other options represent interventions that are either premature without further assessment, less directly related to the immediate diagnostic need, or represent management strategies rather than initial assessment steps. For instance, initiating magnesium sulfate is a treatment for diagnosed severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, not an initial assessment step. Administering antihypertensives without a clear diagnosis and understanding of the severity might be inappropriate. Focusing solely on fetal well-being, while crucial, does not address the immediate maternal risk assessment required. The correct approach is to initiate a thorough maternal assessment to establish a baseline and guide further clinical decisions, reflecting the RNC-OB’s commitment to evidence-based practice and patient safety through meticulous evaluation.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension in a previous pregnancy, now presenting at 32 weeks gestation with new-onset edema and a blood pressure of \(150/95\) mmHg. The core of the question lies in identifying the most appropriate initial nursing intervention based on these findings and the patient’s history, aligning with Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s emphasis on proactive risk identification and management. Given the patient’s previous gestational hypertension and current elevated blood pressure and edema, the primary concern is the potential development or recurrence of a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy, such as preeclampsia. Therefore, a comprehensive maternal assessment is paramount. This includes a detailed review of her current symptoms (headache, visual disturbances, epigastric pain), a thorough physical examination focusing on reflexes and edema, and laboratory investigations to assess for proteinuria, thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes, and renal function. While other interventions might be considered later, the immediate priority is to gather sufficient data to confirm or rule out a diagnosis and guide subsequent management. This aligns with the RNC-OB syllabus’s focus on comprehensive maternal assessment and identification of high-risk factors. The other options represent interventions that are either premature without further assessment, less directly related to the immediate diagnostic need, or represent management strategies rather than initial assessment steps. For instance, initiating magnesium sulfate is a treatment for diagnosed severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, not an initial assessment step. Administering antihypertensives without a clear diagnosis and understanding of the severity might be inappropriate. Focusing solely on fetal well-being, while crucial, does not address the immediate maternal risk assessment required. The correct approach is to initiate a thorough maternal assessment to establish a baseline and guide further clinical decisions, reflecting the RNC-OB’s commitment to evidence-based practice and patient safety through meticulous evaluation.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
During an active labor progression at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s affiliated hospital, a laboring patient’s fetal heart rate tracing suddenly exhibits recurrent late decelerations with minimal variability, occurring after an increase in oxytocin infusion. The maternal vital signs remain stable, but the nurse notes a decrease in fetal movement reported by the patient. What is the most critical initial nursing intervention to improve fetal oxygenation in this scenario?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a significant drop in fetal heart rate (FHR) during labor, characterized by late decelerations and minimal variability, following oxytocin administration. This pattern is indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency, where the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygenation due to strong or prolonged contractions that compromise blood flow to the placenta. The immediate priority in managing this situation is to improve fetal oxygenation. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion directly addresses the potential cause of excessive uterine activity. Elevating the patient’s lateral position helps to alleviate supine hypotension syndrome, which can further compromise uteroplacental perfusion. Administering supplemental oxygen to the mother increases the oxygen available for transfer to the fetus. These interventions are foundational in stabilizing the fetal status and are prioritized before other actions. While assessing cervical status and preparing for potential operative delivery are crucial next steps, they are not the immediate interventions to improve fetal oxygenation. Increasing intravenous fluids without addressing the oxytocin and maternal positioning might not be as effective. Therefore, the combination of discontinuing oxytocin, repositioning the mother, and providing supplemental oxygen represents the most critical and immediate management strategy to address the compromised fetal well-being.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a significant drop in fetal heart rate (FHR) during labor, characterized by late decelerations and minimal variability, following oxytocin administration. This pattern is indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency, where the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygenation due to strong or prolonged contractions that compromise blood flow to the placenta. The immediate priority in managing this situation is to improve fetal oxygenation. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion directly addresses the potential cause of excessive uterine activity. Elevating the patient’s lateral position helps to alleviate supine hypotension syndrome, which can further compromise uteroplacental perfusion. Administering supplemental oxygen to the mother increases the oxygen available for transfer to the fetus. These interventions are foundational in stabilizing the fetal status and are prioritized before other actions. While assessing cervical status and preparing for potential operative delivery are crucial next steps, they are not the immediate interventions to improve fetal oxygenation. Increasing intravenous fluids without addressing the oxytocin and maternal positioning might not be as effective. Therefore, the combination of discontinuing oxytocin, repositioning the mother, and providing supplemental oxygen represents the most critical and immediate management strategy to address the compromised fetal well-being.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Consider a 32-year-old G2P1 at 34 weeks gestation presenting to the labor and delivery unit with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and vaginal spotting. Her vital signs are currently stable, but she reports feeling the baby move less frequently. The nurse notes the abdomen is firm and tender to palpation. Which of the following nursing actions is the most critical immediate priority to ensure optimal maternal and fetal outcomes, reflecting the advanced clinical reasoning expected at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with suspected placental abruption, a critical obstetric emergency. The nurse’s primary responsibility in this situation, aligning with Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s emphasis on patient safety and emergency management, is to stabilize the patient and prepare for potential rapid intervention. The core of the assessment in suspected abruption involves evaluating the maternal hemodynamic status and the fetal well-being. Uterine tenderness and rigidity are key physical findings indicative of uterine irritability and potential bleeding behind the placenta. Fetal distress, such as bradycardia or late decelerations, is a common consequence of reduced placental perfusion. Therefore, continuous electronic fetal monitoring is paramount to assess fetal response and guide management decisions. While vital signs are crucial, the immediate priority is to understand the fetal status in relation to the suspected placental event. Assessing the amount of vaginal bleeding is important, but it can be misleading as concealed bleeding can occur. Administering pain medication without a thorough assessment of fetal well-being and maternal hemodynamic stability could mask critical changes. Initiating intravenous fluids and preparing for potential blood transfusion are supportive measures that follow the initial assessment and stabilization efforts. The most comprehensive and immediate nursing action that addresses both maternal and fetal concerns in this high-risk scenario, reflecting the critical thinking expected at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, is the continuous electronic fetal monitoring to assess fetal well-being and the uterine environment.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with suspected placental abruption, a critical obstetric emergency. The nurse’s primary responsibility in this situation, aligning with Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s emphasis on patient safety and emergency management, is to stabilize the patient and prepare for potential rapid intervention. The core of the assessment in suspected abruption involves evaluating the maternal hemodynamic status and the fetal well-being. Uterine tenderness and rigidity are key physical findings indicative of uterine irritability and potential bleeding behind the placenta. Fetal distress, such as bradycardia or late decelerations, is a common consequence of reduced placental perfusion. Therefore, continuous electronic fetal monitoring is paramount to assess fetal response and guide management decisions. While vital signs are crucial, the immediate priority is to understand the fetal status in relation to the suspected placental event. Assessing the amount of vaginal bleeding is important, but it can be misleading as concealed bleeding can occur. Administering pain medication without a thorough assessment of fetal well-being and maternal hemodynamic stability could mask critical changes. Initiating intravenous fluids and preparing for potential blood transfusion are supportive measures that follow the initial assessment and stabilization efforts. The most comprehensive and immediate nursing action that addresses both maternal and fetal concerns in this high-risk scenario, reflecting the critical thinking expected at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, is the continuous electronic fetal monitoring to assess fetal well-being and the uterine environment.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider a 32-year-old patient at 38 weeks gestation, admitted to Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s labor and delivery unit, with a known history of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) managed with diet alone. She is now experiencing regular, painful contractions every 4-5 minutes, and cervical examination reveals 3 cm dilation, 70% effacement, and -2 station. The nurse is preparing to initiate fetal surveillance. Which of the following assessment findings would be the most critical indicator of potential fetal compromise requiring immediate nursing intervention and physician notification?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) who is now presenting in early labor at 38 weeks gestation. The key to assessing the fetal well-being in this context, given the potential for uteroplacental insufficiency due to the GDM, is to evaluate the fetal response to the stress of labor. A non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern, such as late decelerations or significant bradycardia, would indicate compromised oxygenation. The biophysical profile (BPP) is a comprehensive ultrasound assessment that evaluates fetal breathing movements, gross body movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and the non-stress test (NST). While an NST alone assesses fetal heart rate reactivity, the BPP provides a more holistic view of fetal well-being by incorporating other indicators of fetal health. Therefore, a low BPP score, particularly if it includes a non-reactive NST, would be the most critical finding necessitating immediate intervention to optimize fetal outcomes. The other options represent important assessments but are not as directly indicative of acute fetal compromise during labor as a compromised BPP. For instance, assessing maternal glucose levels is crucial for managing the GDM, but it doesn’t directly reflect the fetus’s immediate response to labor. Evaluating cervical dilation and effacement are standard labor assessments but do not inherently indicate fetal distress. Lastly, monitoring amniotic fluid index (AFI) is part of the BPP, but the complete BPP score offers a more comprehensive picture of fetal status.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) who is now presenting in early labor at 38 weeks gestation. The key to assessing the fetal well-being in this context, given the potential for uteroplacental insufficiency due to the GDM, is to evaluate the fetal response to the stress of labor. A non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern, such as late decelerations or significant bradycardia, would indicate compromised oxygenation. The biophysical profile (BPP) is a comprehensive ultrasound assessment that evaluates fetal breathing movements, gross body movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and the non-stress test (NST). While an NST alone assesses fetal heart rate reactivity, the BPP provides a more holistic view of fetal well-being by incorporating other indicators of fetal health. Therefore, a low BPP score, particularly if it includes a non-reactive NST, would be the most critical finding necessitating immediate intervention to optimize fetal outcomes. The other options represent important assessments but are not as directly indicative of acute fetal compromise during labor as a compromised BPP. For instance, assessing maternal glucose levels is crucial for managing the GDM, but it doesn’t directly reflect the fetus’s immediate response to labor. Evaluating cervical dilation and effacement are standard labor assessments but do not inherently indicate fetal distress. Lastly, monitoring amniotic fluid index (AFI) is part of the BPP, but the complete BPP score offers a more comprehensive picture of fetal status.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
A 28-year-old G2P1 woman, 12 hours postpartum following a spontaneous vaginal delivery, presents with generalized petechiae on her skin and continuous oozing from her IV insertion sites. Her vital signs are: BP \(100/50\) mmHg, HR \(115\) bpm, RR \(22\) breaths/min, and SpO2 \(97\%\) on room air. Laboratory results reveal a platelet count of \(45,000/\text{mm}^3\), an aPTT of \(65\) seconds, and fibrinogen of \(80\) mg/dL. The obstetric nurse recognizes these findings as indicative of a severe coagulopathy. Considering the immediate management priorities for this critical inpatient obstetric scenario at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, which intervention is most crucial to implement first?
Correct
The scenario describes a postpartum patient exhibiting signs of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a critical obstetric emergency. The key indicators are petechiae, oozing from venipuncture sites, and a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). DIC is characterized by widespread activation of coagulation, leading to the consumption of clotting factors and platelets, followed by fibrinolysis. This results in both thrombotic and hemorrhagic complications. In the context of postpartum hemorrhage, DIC can be triggered by retained placental fragments, placental abruption, severe preeclampsia, or sepsis. The management of DIC focuses on addressing the underlying cause and replacing consumed clotting factors and platelets. Therefore, the immediate priority is to administer fresh frozen plasma (FFP) to replenish clotting factors and cryoprecipitate to provide fibrinogen, which is often severely depleted in DIC. Platelet transfusions are also crucial if the platelet count is critically low. While administering intravenous fluids is important for hemodynamic stability, it does not directly address the coagulopathy. Administering heparin would be contraindicated as it could exacerbate bleeding in an already hemorrhaging patient with consumptive coagulopathy. Monitoring vital signs and laboratory values is ongoing but not the primary *intervention* at this critical juncture. The most direct and effective intervention to address the profound depletion of clotting factors and fibrinogen, which are the immediate culprits behind the oozing and prolonged aPTT, is the administration of FFP and cryoprecipitate.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a postpartum patient exhibiting signs of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a critical obstetric emergency. The key indicators are petechiae, oozing from venipuncture sites, and a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). DIC is characterized by widespread activation of coagulation, leading to the consumption of clotting factors and platelets, followed by fibrinolysis. This results in both thrombotic and hemorrhagic complications. In the context of postpartum hemorrhage, DIC can be triggered by retained placental fragments, placental abruption, severe preeclampsia, or sepsis. The management of DIC focuses on addressing the underlying cause and replacing consumed clotting factors and platelets. Therefore, the immediate priority is to administer fresh frozen plasma (FFP) to replenish clotting factors and cryoprecipitate to provide fibrinogen, which is often severely depleted in DIC. Platelet transfusions are also crucial if the platelet count is critically low. While administering intravenous fluids is important for hemodynamic stability, it does not directly address the coagulopathy. Administering heparin would be contraindicated as it could exacerbate bleeding in an already hemorrhaging patient with consumptive coagulopathy. Monitoring vital signs and laboratory values is ongoing but not the primary *intervention* at this critical juncture. The most direct and effective intervention to address the profound depletion of clotting factors and fibrinogen, which are the immediate culprits behind the oozing and prolonged aPTT, is the administration of FFP and cryoprecipitate.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider a 32-year-old patient at 32 weeks gestation who is admitted to the obstetric unit. Her past medical history includes gestational hypertension in a previous pregnancy. Upon admission, her blood pressure is recorded as \(145/92\) mmHg, and she reports mild, generalized edema of her hands and face. Based on the principles of comprehensive maternal assessment and risk stratification taught at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, what is the most appropriate immediate nursing action?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension in a previous pregnancy, now presenting at 32 weeks gestation with new-onset edema and a blood pressure of \(145/92\) mmHg. This clinical presentation strongly suggests a recurrence or development of a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy, most likely preeclampsia given the presence of edema and elevated blood pressure. The core of the question lies in identifying the most appropriate immediate nursing action that aligns with the principles of comprehensive maternal assessment and risk identification, as emphasized in Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s curriculum. A thorough maternal history is foundational, and recognizing pre-existing risk factors, such as prior gestational hypertension, is crucial. The current vital signs and physical findings (edema) necessitate a more detailed assessment to confirm the diagnosis and evaluate its severity. This includes assessing for other signs and symptoms of preeclampsia, such as proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain. Therefore, the most immediate and appropriate nursing action is to initiate a more comprehensive maternal assessment, specifically focusing on the diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia. This aligns with the syllabus’s emphasis on “Identification of high-risk factors in pregnancy” and “Assessment of the postpartum patient” (though this patient is antepartum, the assessment principles are similar). Initiating fetal monitoring is also important, but it follows the initial maternal assessment to understand the maternal status. Administering magnesium sulfate is a treatment for severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, and while it might become necessary, it’s not the *first* step without a confirmed diagnosis of severe disease. Providing education on diet and hydration is generally beneficial but does not address the immediate concern of a potential hypertensive crisis. The most critical initial step is to gather more data to accurately assess the maternal condition and guide subsequent interventions.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension in a previous pregnancy, now presenting at 32 weeks gestation with new-onset edema and a blood pressure of \(145/92\) mmHg. This clinical presentation strongly suggests a recurrence or development of a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy, most likely preeclampsia given the presence of edema and elevated blood pressure. The core of the question lies in identifying the most appropriate immediate nursing action that aligns with the principles of comprehensive maternal assessment and risk identification, as emphasized in Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s curriculum. A thorough maternal history is foundational, and recognizing pre-existing risk factors, such as prior gestational hypertension, is crucial. The current vital signs and physical findings (edema) necessitate a more detailed assessment to confirm the diagnosis and evaluate its severity. This includes assessing for other signs and symptoms of preeclampsia, such as proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain. Therefore, the most immediate and appropriate nursing action is to initiate a more comprehensive maternal assessment, specifically focusing on the diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia. This aligns with the syllabus’s emphasis on “Identification of high-risk factors in pregnancy” and “Assessment of the postpartum patient” (though this patient is antepartum, the assessment principles are similar). Initiating fetal monitoring is also important, but it follows the initial maternal assessment to understand the maternal status. Administering magnesium sulfate is a treatment for severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, and while it might become necessary, it’s not the *first* step without a confirmed diagnosis of severe disease. Providing education on diet and hydration is generally beneficial but does not address the immediate concern of a potential hypertensive crisis. The most critical initial step is to gather more data to accurately assess the maternal condition and guide subsequent interventions.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
A 32-year-old gravida 2, para 1 patient, at 32 weeks gestation, presents to the antenatal clinic with a blood pressure of \(155/98\) mmHg and \(2+\) proteinuria on dipstick urinalysis. She reports no other new symptoms. Her previous pregnancy was complicated by gestational hypertension managed with bed rest and antihypertensive medication. Considering the principles of inpatient obstetric nursing at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, what is the most appropriate initial nursing action in collaboration with the interdisciplinary team?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension in a previous pregnancy, now presenting at 32 weeks gestation with new-onset proteinuria and elevated blood pressure. This clinical presentation strongly suggests a recurrence of a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy, most likely preeclampsia. The core of managing such a condition at this gestational age, especially with signs of potential end-organ involvement (proteinuria), involves a multidisciplinary approach focused on maternal and fetal well-being. The critical decision point revolves around the timing and mode of delivery, balanced against the risks of prematurity. While immediate delivery might be indicated for severe features of preeclampsia (e.g., eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, severe hypertension unresponsive to medication, non-reassuring fetal status), expectant management is often considered for mild to moderate preeclampsia, particularly when the gestational age is less than 34 weeks, provided maternal and fetal conditions are stable. This expectant management involves close maternal and fetal surveillance. Maternal surveillance includes frequent blood pressure monitoring, assessment for new or worsening symptoms (headache, visual disturbances, epigastric pain), laboratory tests (platelet count, liver enzymes, renal function), and urinalysis for protein. Fetal surveillance typically involves non-stress tests (NSTs), biophysical profiles (BPPs), and Doppler ultrasound studies to assess fetal well-being and growth. The goal of expectant management is to prolong the pregnancy to allow for fetal maturation, thereby reducing the risks associated with prematurity, while closely monitoring for any signs of deterioration that would necessitate immediate intervention. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing action, in collaboration with the medical team, is to initiate a comprehensive surveillance protocol for both mother and fetus. This includes escalating the frequency of maternal assessments (e.g., twice-weekly NSTs, regular laboratory work), educating the patient on warning signs, and preparing for potential delivery if the condition worsens or fetal maturity is deemed sufficient. The other options are less appropriate: immediate delivery without evidence of severe preeclampsia or fetal compromise would expose the fetus to significant risks of prematurity; focusing solely on comfort measures ignores the underlying pathophysiology and potential for serious maternal complications; and delaying further assessment until the next scheduled appointment would be a dereliction of duty given the current findings.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension in a previous pregnancy, now presenting at 32 weeks gestation with new-onset proteinuria and elevated blood pressure. This clinical presentation strongly suggests a recurrence of a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy, most likely preeclampsia. The core of managing such a condition at this gestational age, especially with signs of potential end-organ involvement (proteinuria), involves a multidisciplinary approach focused on maternal and fetal well-being. The critical decision point revolves around the timing and mode of delivery, balanced against the risks of prematurity. While immediate delivery might be indicated for severe features of preeclampsia (e.g., eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, severe hypertension unresponsive to medication, non-reassuring fetal status), expectant management is often considered for mild to moderate preeclampsia, particularly when the gestational age is less than 34 weeks, provided maternal and fetal conditions are stable. This expectant management involves close maternal and fetal surveillance. Maternal surveillance includes frequent blood pressure monitoring, assessment for new or worsening symptoms (headache, visual disturbances, epigastric pain), laboratory tests (platelet count, liver enzymes, renal function), and urinalysis for protein. Fetal surveillance typically involves non-stress tests (NSTs), biophysical profiles (BPPs), and Doppler ultrasound studies to assess fetal well-being and growth. The goal of expectant management is to prolong the pregnancy to allow for fetal maturation, thereby reducing the risks associated with prematurity, while closely monitoring for any signs of deterioration that would necessitate immediate intervention. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing action, in collaboration with the medical team, is to initiate a comprehensive surveillance protocol for both mother and fetus. This includes escalating the frequency of maternal assessments (e.g., twice-weekly NSTs, regular laboratory work), educating the patient on warning signs, and preparing for potential delivery if the condition worsens or fetal maturity is deemed sufficient. The other options are less appropriate: immediate delivery without evidence of severe preeclampsia or fetal compromise would expose the fetus to significant risks of prematurity; focusing solely on comfort measures ignores the underlying pathophysiology and potential for serious maternal complications; and delaying further assessment until the next scheduled appointment would be a dereliction of duty given the current findings.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
A pregnant individual at 36 weeks gestation, admitted with a diagnosis of gestational hypertension, is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate at a rate of 2 grams per hour for seizure prophylaxis. Upon routine assessment, the nurse notes that the patient’s deep tendon reflexes have diminished from a 2+ to a 1+ at the patellar and biceps sites. The patient remains alert and oriented, with a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute and adequate urine output. Considering the pharmacological actions of magnesium sulfate and the patient’s current clinical presentation, what is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Correct
The scenario presented involves a patient with gestational hypertension who is being managed with magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis. The key to determining the appropriate nursing intervention lies in understanding the therapeutic and toxic effects of magnesium sulfate and the expected physiological responses to this medication. Magnesium sulfate’s primary mechanism in preventing eclampsia is by blocking neuromuscular transmission and acting as a central nervous system depressant. Consequently, a common side effect is decreased deep tendon reflexes. A diminished reflex response, specifically a 1+ reflex, indicates that the patient’s magnesium sulfate level is approaching the lower end of the therapeutic range or is within the therapeutic range, signifying that the medication is having its intended effect without causing toxicity. Other signs of toxicity, such as absent reflexes (0+), respiratory depression, or altered mental status, would necessitate immediate intervention, such as discontinuing the infusion and administering calcium gluconate. However, a 1+ reflex, while requiring continued monitoring, does not indicate an immediate need to alter the infusion rate or administer an antidote. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing action is to continue the prescribed infusion rate and closely monitor the patient for other signs of magnesium toxicity. This reflects a nuanced understanding of pharmacodynamics and patient assessment in high-risk obstetric care, a core competency at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University.
Incorrect
The scenario presented involves a patient with gestational hypertension who is being managed with magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis. The key to determining the appropriate nursing intervention lies in understanding the therapeutic and toxic effects of magnesium sulfate and the expected physiological responses to this medication. Magnesium sulfate’s primary mechanism in preventing eclampsia is by blocking neuromuscular transmission and acting as a central nervous system depressant. Consequently, a common side effect is decreased deep tendon reflexes. A diminished reflex response, specifically a 1+ reflex, indicates that the patient’s magnesium sulfate level is approaching the lower end of the therapeutic range or is within the therapeutic range, signifying that the medication is having its intended effect without causing toxicity. Other signs of toxicity, such as absent reflexes (0+), respiratory depression, or altered mental status, would necessitate immediate intervention, such as discontinuing the infusion and administering calcium gluconate. However, a 1+ reflex, while requiring continued monitoring, does not indicate an immediate need to alter the infusion rate or administer an antidote. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing action is to continue the prescribed infusion rate and closely monitor the patient for other signs of magnesium toxicity. This reflects a nuanced understanding of pharmacodynamics and patient assessment in high-risk obstetric care, a core competency at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider a 36-week gestation patient admitted to the Inpatient Obstetric Nursing unit at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University with a sudden onset of severe, persistent occipital headache, scintillating scotoma, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is \( 168/108 \) mmHg, and urinalysis reveals 2+ proteinuria. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action to implement in accordance with best practices taught at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe, persistent headache, visual disturbances (scintillating scotoma), and epigastric discomfort, occurring at 36 weeks gestation. These symptoms are highly indicative of preeclampsia with severe features. The critical assessment finding is the presence of a significant proteinuric response in the urine. While a protein-to-creatinine ratio of \( \geq 0.3 \) is a common diagnostic criterion for significant proteinuria in preeclampsia, the presence of severe features such as neurological symptoms (headache, visual changes) and epigastric pain, coupled with any degree of proteinuria, warrants immediate intervention. The question asks for the most appropriate initial nursing action. Given the constellation of severe symptoms and the potential for progression to eclampsia, the priority is to stabilize the patient and prevent further complications. Administering magnesium sulfate is the cornerstone of management for severe preeclampsia to prevent seizures. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring is also crucial to assess fetal well-being given the maternal instability. Therefore, the most appropriate initial nursing action is to initiate magnesium sulfate infusion and continuous fetal monitoring. Other options, while potentially relevant later, are not the immediate priority. For instance, preparing for an amniocentesis is not indicated for preeclampsia management. Administering a bolus of intravenous fluids without further assessment might not address the underlying pathophysiology and could potentially worsen fluid overload in some cases. Encouraging ambulation is contraindicated given the patient’s symptoms. The combination of magnesium sulfate and continuous fetal monitoring directly addresses the most life-threatening aspects of severe preeclampsia: seizure prevention and fetal status assessment.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe, persistent headache, visual disturbances (scintillating scotoma), and epigastric discomfort, occurring at 36 weeks gestation. These symptoms are highly indicative of preeclampsia with severe features. The critical assessment finding is the presence of a significant proteinuric response in the urine. While a protein-to-creatinine ratio of \( \geq 0.3 \) is a common diagnostic criterion for significant proteinuria in preeclampsia, the presence of severe features such as neurological symptoms (headache, visual changes) and epigastric pain, coupled with any degree of proteinuria, warrants immediate intervention. The question asks for the most appropriate initial nursing action. Given the constellation of severe symptoms and the potential for progression to eclampsia, the priority is to stabilize the patient and prevent further complications. Administering magnesium sulfate is the cornerstone of management for severe preeclampsia to prevent seizures. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring is also crucial to assess fetal well-being given the maternal instability. Therefore, the most appropriate initial nursing action is to initiate magnesium sulfate infusion and continuous fetal monitoring. Other options, while potentially relevant later, are not the immediate priority. For instance, preparing for an amniocentesis is not indicated for preeclampsia management. Administering a bolus of intravenous fluids without further assessment might not address the underlying pathophysiology and could potentially worsen fluid overload in some cases. Encouraging ambulation is contraindicated given the patient’s symptoms. The combination of magnesium sulfate and continuous fetal monitoring directly addresses the most life-threatening aspects of severe preeclampsia: seizure prevention and fetal status assessment.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
A 32-year-old G2P1 at 34 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery unit with a sudden onset of a severe, throbbing headache, blurred vision, and persistent epigastric pain. Her vital signs reveal a blood pressure of \( 170/112 \) mmHg, pulse of 98 bpm, respirations of 20/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. A dipstick urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. Considering the potential for rapid deterioration, what is the most critical immediate nursing intervention for this patient at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s clinical simulation center?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric discomfort, alongside elevated blood pressure and proteinuria. These are classic signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy characterized by new-onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Severe preeclampsia is diagnosed when certain criteria are met, including a systolic blood pressure of \( \geq 160 \) mmHg or diastolic blood pressure of \( \geq 110 \) mmHg, or the presence of end-organ dysfunction. In this case, the patient’s reported symptoms (headache, visual changes, epigastric pain) are indicative of central nervous system and hepatic involvement, respectively, which are signs of severe disease. The management of severe preeclampsia necessitates immediate intervention to prevent progression to eclampsia, which involves seizures. The cornerstone of management for severe preeclampsia is delivery of the fetus and placenta, as this is the only definitive cure. However, before delivery, stabilization of the patient is crucial. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis and treatment in preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant, reducing the risk of seizures. Antihypertensive medications, such as intravenous labetalol or hydralazine, are administered to control the elevated blood pressure and prevent cerebrovascular complications. While monitoring fetal well-being is essential, the immediate priority is maternal stabilization. Therefore, the most appropriate initial nursing action, after recognizing the signs of severe preeclampsia, is to administer magnesium sulfate to prevent eclamptic seizures. This aligns with the principles of patient safety and the management protocols for this critical obstetric condition as emphasized in advanced inpatient obstetric nursing curricula at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, which stresses proactive intervention in high-risk scenarios.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric discomfort, alongside elevated blood pressure and proteinuria. These are classic signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy characterized by new-onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Severe preeclampsia is diagnosed when certain criteria are met, including a systolic blood pressure of \( \geq 160 \) mmHg or diastolic blood pressure of \( \geq 110 \) mmHg, or the presence of end-organ dysfunction. In this case, the patient’s reported symptoms (headache, visual changes, epigastric pain) are indicative of central nervous system and hepatic involvement, respectively, which are signs of severe disease. The management of severe preeclampsia necessitates immediate intervention to prevent progression to eclampsia, which involves seizures. The cornerstone of management for severe preeclampsia is delivery of the fetus and placenta, as this is the only definitive cure. However, before delivery, stabilization of the patient is crucial. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis and treatment in preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant, reducing the risk of seizures. Antihypertensive medications, such as intravenous labetalol or hydralazine, are administered to control the elevated blood pressure and prevent cerebrovascular complications. While monitoring fetal well-being is essential, the immediate priority is maternal stabilization. Therefore, the most appropriate initial nursing action, after recognizing the signs of severe preeclampsia, is to administer magnesium sulfate to prevent eclamptic seizures. This aligns with the principles of patient safety and the management protocols for this critical obstetric condition as emphasized in advanced inpatient obstetric nursing curricula at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, which stresses proactive intervention in high-risk scenarios.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
A 32-year-old G2P1 at 30 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery unit with a sudden, severe occipital headache, blurred vision, and persistent epigastric discomfort. Her blood pressure is \(170/110\) mmHg, and urinalysis reveals \(3+\) proteinuria. Considering the critical need for immediate maternal stabilization and fetal well-being, what is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention in this scenario, assuming the physician has been notified?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric pain, accompanied by a significant rise in blood pressure to \(170/110\) mmHg. These clinical manifestations are highly indicative of severe preeclampsia, a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. The management of severe preeclampsia necessitates immediate intervention to prevent progression to eclampsia and other serious complications. The cornerstone of management is delivery of the fetus and placenta, as this is the only definitive cure. However, prior to delivery, stabilization of the mother is paramount. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia due to its effectiveness in preventing eclamptic seizures. Antihypertensive medications, such as IV hydralazine or labetalol, are administered to lower the blood pressure to a safe range, typically below \(160/110\) mmHg, to reduce the risk of cerebrovascular events. Corticosteroids, like betamethasone, are administered to promote fetal lung maturity if the gestation is between 24 and 34 weeks, as this can significantly reduce the incidence of respiratory distress syndrome in the neonate. While monitoring fetal well-being is crucial, the immediate priority is maternal stabilization. Therefore, the most appropriate initial nursing action, after ensuring a safe environment and alerting the physician, is to administer magnesium sulfate to prevent seizures, followed closely by antihypertensives to control the elevated blood pressure. The administration of corticosteroids is also a critical component of management if indicated by gestational age, but the immediate life-saving interventions are seizure prophylaxis and blood pressure control.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric pain, accompanied by a significant rise in blood pressure to \(170/110\) mmHg. These clinical manifestations are highly indicative of severe preeclampsia, a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. The management of severe preeclampsia necessitates immediate intervention to prevent progression to eclampsia and other serious complications. The cornerstone of management is delivery of the fetus and placenta, as this is the only definitive cure. However, prior to delivery, stabilization of the mother is paramount. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia due to its effectiveness in preventing eclamptic seizures. Antihypertensive medications, such as IV hydralazine or labetalol, are administered to lower the blood pressure to a safe range, typically below \(160/110\) mmHg, to reduce the risk of cerebrovascular events. Corticosteroids, like betamethasone, are administered to promote fetal lung maturity if the gestation is between 24 and 34 weeks, as this can significantly reduce the incidence of respiratory distress syndrome in the neonate. While monitoring fetal well-being is crucial, the immediate priority is maternal stabilization. Therefore, the most appropriate initial nursing action, after ensuring a safe environment and alerting the physician, is to administer magnesium sulfate to prevent seizures, followed closely by antihypertensives to control the elevated blood pressure. The administration of corticosteroids is also a critical component of management if indicated by gestational age, but the immediate life-saving interventions are seizure prophylaxis and blood pressure control.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
A 32-year-old patient, gravida 3 para 2, is admitted to Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s maternity unit at 36 weeks gestation with a history of gestational hypertension managed with oral labetalol. Upon routine assessment, her blood pressure, which was previously stable at \(130/80\) mmHg, is now recorded as \(145/92\) mmHg. She denies headache, visual changes, or epigastric pain. Which of the following nursing actions represents the most appropriate initial intervention in this evolving clinical picture?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension managed with labetalol. The question asks about the most appropriate initial nursing intervention when the patient’s blood pressure readings begin to trend upwards, despite medication. The core concept here is the proactive management of preeclampsia, a significant risk in patients with a history of gestational hypertension. The upward trend in blood pressure, even with medication, signals a potential worsening of the condition. Therefore, the immediate priority is to escalate care by notifying the physician or advanced practice provider. This allows for a timely reassessment of the patient’s condition, potential medication adjustments, or further diagnostic testing to prevent progression to more severe forms of hypertensive disorders like eclampsia. Other options, while potentially relevant later, are not the *initial* priority. Increasing the labetalol dose without physician consultation is outside the scope of independent nursing practice in this context. Administering magnesium sulfate is a treatment for established severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, not an initial response to a trending blood pressure. Performing a biophysical profile is a diagnostic tool to assess fetal well-being, which is important but secondary to addressing the maternal hypertensive crisis. The most critical first step is to alert the medical team to the evolving maternal risk.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension managed with labetalol. The question asks about the most appropriate initial nursing intervention when the patient’s blood pressure readings begin to trend upwards, despite medication. The core concept here is the proactive management of preeclampsia, a significant risk in patients with a history of gestational hypertension. The upward trend in blood pressure, even with medication, signals a potential worsening of the condition. Therefore, the immediate priority is to escalate care by notifying the physician or advanced practice provider. This allows for a timely reassessment of the patient’s condition, potential medication adjustments, or further diagnostic testing to prevent progression to more severe forms of hypertensive disorders like eclampsia. Other options, while potentially relevant later, are not the *initial* priority. Increasing the labetalol dose without physician consultation is outside the scope of independent nursing practice in this context. Administering magnesium sulfate is a treatment for established severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, not an initial response to a trending blood pressure. Performing a biophysical profile is a diagnostic tool to assess fetal well-being, which is important but secondary to addressing the maternal hypertensive crisis. The most critical first step is to alert the medical team to the evolving maternal risk.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Consider a 32-year-old gravida 2, para 1, at 34 weeks gestation presenting to the labor and delivery unit with a sudden onset of a severe, throbbing headache, blurred vision, and epigastric discomfort. Her vital signs reveal a blood pressure of \(170/110\) mmHg, pulse of \(92\) bpm, respirations of \(20\) breaths/min, and temperature of \(37.0^\circ\)C. A urinalysis confirms \(3+\) proteinuria. Based on the comprehensive maternal assessment principles taught at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, which of the following nursing actions is the most critical immediate intervention to ensure maternal and fetal safety?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric pain, alongside elevated blood pressure and proteinuria. These are classic signs and symptoms indicative of severe preeclampsia. The core management principle for severe preeclampsia, especially when the gestational age is beyond fetal viability or when maternal condition is deteriorating, is delivery. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia and for managing seizure activity if it occurs (eclampsia). Antihypertensives are administered to control blood pressure and prevent cerebrovascular complications. While amniocentesis might be considered for fetal lung maturity assessment in certain preterm scenarios, it is not the immediate priority in a patient presenting with signs of severe preeclampsia who requires stabilization and likely delivery. Continuous fetal monitoring is crucial to assess fetal well-being, but it is an adjunct to the primary management of the maternal condition. Therefore, the most critical immediate intervention, reflecting the academic rigor and clinical decision-making expected at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, is the administration of magnesium sulfate and preparation for delivery, alongside antihypertensive therapy. The question tests the understanding of the pathophysiology and immediate management priorities for a life-threatening obstetric condition, aligning with the syllabus’s focus on complications of pregnancy and pharmacology in obstetrics.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric pain, alongside elevated blood pressure and proteinuria. These are classic signs and symptoms indicative of severe preeclampsia. The core management principle for severe preeclampsia, especially when the gestational age is beyond fetal viability or when maternal condition is deteriorating, is delivery. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia and for managing seizure activity if it occurs (eclampsia). Antihypertensives are administered to control blood pressure and prevent cerebrovascular complications. While amniocentesis might be considered for fetal lung maturity assessment in certain preterm scenarios, it is not the immediate priority in a patient presenting with signs of severe preeclampsia who requires stabilization and likely delivery. Continuous fetal monitoring is crucial to assess fetal well-being, but it is an adjunct to the primary management of the maternal condition. Therefore, the most critical immediate intervention, reflecting the academic rigor and clinical decision-making expected at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, is the administration of magnesium sulfate and preparation for delivery, alongside antihypertensive therapy. The question tests the understanding of the pathophysiology and immediate management priorities for a life-threatening obstetric condition, aligning with the syllabus’s focus on complications of pregnancy and pharmacology in obstetrics.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
A 32-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery unit with a sudden onset of a severe, throbbing headache, blurred vision, and persistent epigastric pain. Her vital signs reveal a blood pressure of \(170/110\) mmHg, pulse of 92 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. A dipstick urinalysis shows 1+ proteinuria. Considering the established protocols at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University for managing hypertensive emergencies in pregnancy, what is the most critical immediate nursing intervention?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric discomfort, coupled with a significantly elevated blood pressure of \(170/110\) mmHg. These clinical manifestations are highly indicative of severe preeclampsia, a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. The absence of proteinuria does not rule out severe preeclampsia, as the diagnosis can be made based on severe features even without significant proteinuria. The critical nursing intervention in this situation, as per Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s emphasis on patient safety and evidence-based practice, is to prevent maternal seizure activity and manage the hypertensive crisis. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis and treatment in preeclampsia. It acts by blocking neuromuscular transmission, thereby reducing the likelihood of seizures. While antihypertensive medications are crucial for managing the elevated blood pressure, magnesium sulfate directly addresses the most life-threatening complication of severe preeclampsia: eclampsia. Therefore, the immediate administration of magnesium sulfate is the priority nursing action. Other interventions, such as preparing for delivery, monitoring fetal well-being, and administering antihypertensives, are also important but secondary to immediate seizure prevention. The explanation emphasizes the physiological rationale behind magnesium sulfate’s efficacy in this context, aligning with the advanced understanding expected of Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University candidates.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric discomfort, coupled with a significantly elevated blood pressure of \(170/110\) mmHg. These clinical manifestations are highly indicative of severe preeclampsia, a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. The absence of proteinuria does not rule out severe preeclampsia, as the diagnosis can be made based on severe features even without significant proteinuria. The critical nursing intervention in this situation, as per Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s emphasis on patient safety and evidence-based practice, is to prevent maternal seizure activity and manage the hypertensive crisis. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis and treatment in preeclampsia. It acts by blocking neuromuscular transmission, thereby reducing the likelihood of seizures. While antihypertensive medications are crucial for managing the elevated blood pressure, magnesium sulfate directly addresses the most life-threatening complication of severe preeclampsia: eclampsia. Therefore, the immediate administration of magnesium sulfate is the priority nursing action. Other interventions, such as preparing for delivery, monitoring fetal well-being, and administering antihypertensives, are also important but secondary to immediate seizure prevention. The explanation emphasizes the physiological rationale behind magnesium sulfate’s efficacy in this context, aligning with the advanced understanding expected of Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University candidates.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider a 32-year-old G2P1 patient at 39 weeks gestation who is undergoing induction of labor with oxytocin. During the infusion, the nurse observes a pattern of late decelerations on the fetal monitor, with the FHR dropping to 80 bpm following contractions that are occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 70 seconds, accompanied by minimal variability. What is the most critical initial nursing intervention to address this non-reassuring fetal status?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a significant drop in fetal heart rate (FHR) during labor, characterized by late decelerations and minimal variability, following oxytocin administration. This pattern is indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency, where the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygenation due to uterine contractions. The immediate nursing priority, as per established protocols for managing non-reassuring fetal status, is to optimize fetal oxygenation and reduce the stress on the fetus. This involves discontinuing the oxytocin infusion, as it is a direct contributor to the increased uterine activity and potential for uteroplacental insufficiency. Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask to the mother increases maternal oxygen saturation, which in turn improves oxygen transfer to the fetus. Positioning the mother on her side (lateral position) helps to alleviate pressure on the vena cava, improving maternal circulation and placental perfusion. These interventions are foundational in stabilizing the fetal heart rate and are prioritized before other actions like amnioinfusion or preparing for operative delivery, which are considered if the initial measures are ineffective. The explanation emphasizes the physiological rationale behind each intervention: oxytocin cessation to reduce uterine hyperstimulation, oxygen administration to enhance maternal oxygenation, and lateral positioning to improve uteroplacental blood flow. These actions directly address the suspected cause of the fetal distress and are the most immediate and effective nursing interventions to improve fetal well-being in this critical situation, aligning with the principles of fetal monitoring and emergency management taught at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a significant drop in fetal heart rate (FHR) during labor, characterized by late decelerations and minimal variability, following oxytocin administration. This pattern is indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency, where the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygenation due to uterine contractions. The immediate nursing priority, as per established protocols for managing non-reassuring fetal status, is to optimize fetal oxygenation and reduce the stress on the fetus. This involves discontinuing the oxytocin infusion, as it is a direct contributor to the increased uterine activity and potential for uteroplacental insufficiency. Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask to the mother increases maternal oxygen saturation, which in turn improves oxygen transfer to the fetus. Positioning the mother on her side (lateral position) helps to alleviate pressure on the vena cava, improving maternal circulation and placental perfusion. These interventions are foundational in stabilizing the fetal heart rate and are prioritized before other actions like amnioinfusion or preparing for operative delivery, which are considered if the initial measures are ineffective. The explanation emphasizes the physiological rationale behind each intervention: oxytocin cessation to reduce uterine hyperstimulation, oxygen administration to enhance maternal oxygenation, and lateral positioning to improve uteroplacental blood flow. These actions directly address the suspected cause of the fetal distress and are the most immediate and effective nursing interventions to improve fetal well-being in this critical situation, aligning with the principles of fetal monitoring and emergency management taught at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
A 32-year-old gravida 2, para 1 patient at 36 weeks gestation is admitted to Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s maternity unit for management of gestational hypertension. She is currently receiving labetalol \(200\) mg orally every \(12\) hours. Her vital signs are stable, with blood pressure readings averaging \(130/80\) mmHg. She reports experiencing mild dizziness and occasional fatigue, which she attributes to the medication. Considering the principles of safe and effective inpatient obstetric care as emphasized at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, what is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension managed with labetalol. The question focuses on the appropriate nursing intervention when the patient’s blood pressure readings are consistently within the target range, and she is experiencing mild side effects. The core principle here is to maintain therapeutic efficacy while minimizing adverse effects, aligning with the university’s emphasis on patient-centered care and evidence-based practice. The patient’s current blood pressure readings (e.g., \(130/80\) mmHg) are stable and below the threshold for immediate concern (typically \( \geq 160/110 \) mmHg for severe hypertension). Labetalol is a beta-blocker that can cause side effects such as dizziness or fatigue. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing action is to continue the current medication regimen, monitor for any worsening of side effects or blood pressure, and reinforce patient education on managing these mild symptoms. This approach prioritizes stability and patient comfort, reflecting a nuanced understanding of pharmacological management in obstetrics. Other options are less appropriate: abruptly discontinuing medication without a physician’s order is unsafe; increasing the dose without evidence of uncontrolled hypertension would be counterproductive and increase the risk of side effects; and focusing solely on fetal well-being without addressing maternal comfort and potential medication side effects overlooks a critical aspect of comprehensive inpatient obstetric nursing. The university’s curriculum stresses the importance of balancing maternal and fetal health with the patient’s overall well-being and adherence to treatment.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension managed with labetalol. The question focuses on the appropriate nursing intervention when the patient’s blood pressure readings are consistently within the target range, and she is experiencing mild side effects. The core principle here is to maintain therapeutic efficacy while minimizing adverse effects, aligning with the university’s emphasis on patient-centered care and evidence-based practice. The patient’s current blood pressure readings (e.g., \(130/80\) mmHg) are stable and below the threshold for immediate concern (typically \( \geq 160/110 \) mmHg for severe hypertension). Labetalol is a beta-blocker that can cause side effects such as dizziness or fatigue. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing action is to continue the current medication regimen, monitor for any worsening of side effects or blood pressure, and reinforce patient education on managing these mild symptoms. This approach prioritizes stability and patient comfort, reflecting a nuanced understanding of pharmacological management in obstetrics. Other options are less appropriate: abruptly discontinuing medication without a physician’s order is unsafe; increasing the dose without evidence of uncontrolled hypertension would be counterproductive and increase the risk of side effects; and focusing solely on fetal well-being without addressing maternal comfort and potential medication side effects overlooks a critical aspect of comprehensive inpatient obstetric nursing. The university’s curriculum stresses the importance of balancing maternal and fetal health with the patient’s overall well-being and adherence to treatment.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Consider a 32-week gestation patient presenting for a routine prenatal visit. Her medical history reveals a previous pregnancy complicated by gestational hypertension. Today, her blood pressure is recorded as \(145/92\) mmHg, and she reports mild, generalized edema of her lower extremities. Urinalysis for protein is negative. Given this presentation, what is the most significant factor guiding the obstetric nurse’s ongoing assessment and management strategy at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, considering the potential for recurrent hypertensive disorders?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension in a previous pregnancy, now presenting at 32 weeks gestation with new-onset edema and a blood pressure of \(145/92\) mmHg. The key to assessing the risk of recurrent hypertensive disorder, specifically preeclampsia, lies in understanding the multifactorial nature of its development and the significance of specific clinical indicators. While edema can be a non-specific finding, its presence alongside elevated blood pressure in a patient with a prior history of gestational hypertension warrants close monitoring. The absence of proteinuria at this stage does not rule out the possibility of developing preeclampsia, as proteinuria can be a later manifestation. Therefore, the most critical factor to consider for predicting the recurrence and severity of a hypertensive disorder in this patient is the presence of a previous diagnosis of gestational hypertension or preeclampsia, coupled with the current elevated blood pressure and edema. This combination strongly suggests a heightened risk. The explanation focuses on the pathophysiological underpinnings and clinical manifestations that guide the nurse’s assessment and management strategy at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, emphasizing the need for vigilant monitoring for signs of developing preeclampsia, such as worsening hypertension, proteinuria, thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes, or neurological symptoms. The university’s curriculum stresses the importance of recognizing these subtle yet critical changes to ensure timely intervention and optimize maternal and fetal outcomes, aligning with principles of evidence-based practice and patient safety.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension in a previous pregnancy, now presenting at 32 weeks gestation with new-onset edema and a blood pressure of \(145/92\) mmHg. The key to assessing the risk of recurrent hypertensive disorder, specifically preeclampsia, lies in understanding the multifactorial nature of its development and the significance of specific clinical indicators. While edema can be a non-specific finding, its presence alongside elevated blood pressure in a patient with a prior history of gestational hypertension warrants close monitoring. The absence of proteinuria at this stage does not rule out the possibility of developing preeclampsia, as proteinuria can be a later manifestation. Therefore, the most critical factor to consider for predicting the recurrence and severity of a hypertensive disorder in this patient is the presence of a previous diagnosis of gestational hypertension or preeclampsia, coupled with the current elevated blood pressure and edema. This combination strongly suggests a heightened risk. The explanation focuses on the pathophysiological underpinnings and clinical manifestations that guide the nurse’s assessment and management strategy at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, emphasizing the need for vigilant monitoring for signs of developing preeclampsia, such as worsening hypertension, proteinuria, thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes, or neurological symptoms. The university’s curriculum stresses the importance of recognizing these subtle yet critical changes to ensure timely intervention and optimize maternal and fetal outcomes, aligning with principles of evidence-based practice and patient safety.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider a 32-year-old patient at 32 weeks gestation presenting to the antenatal clinic at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University. Her past obstetric history includes gestational hypertension in her previous pregnancy. Today, she reports mild ankle swelling that has worsened over the past week, and her blood pressure reading is \(155/95\) mmHg. Which of the following nursing actions is the most critical initial step in managing this patient’s presentation?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension in a previous pregnancy, now presenting at 32 weeks gestation with new-onset edema and a blood pressure of \(155/95\) mmHg. The nurse’s priority is to identify potential complications and initiate appropriate management. A comprehensive maternal history, including previous hypertensive episodes, is crucial for risk stratification. Physical examination should focus on assessing for signs of preeclampsia, such as generalized edema, hyperreflexia, and epigastric pain. Vital signs monitoring, particularly blood pressure, is paramount. Fetal assessment, including fetal heart tones and potentially non-stress testing or biophysical profiles, is indicated due to the risk of uteroplacental insufficiency associated with hypertensive disorders. The question asks about the *most* critical initial nursing action. While all listed actions are important in obstetric care, the immediate priority in a patient exhibiting signs of potential preeclampsia is to gather more data to confirm the diagnosis and assess the severity. This involves a thorough physical assessment, including checking for reflexes and epigastric tenderness, and obtaining a urine sample for protein analysis. These steps directly contribute to diagnosing and staging the hypertensive disorder, which then guides further management. Monitoring fetal heart tones is also vital, but the maternal assessment is the immediate precursor to determining the urgency and type of fetal monitoring required. Educating the patient about warning signs is important but secondary to the immediate clinical assessment. Administering magnesium sulfate is a treatment for severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, and its administration would follow a confirmed diagnosis and risk assessment. Therefore, the most critical initial action is the comprehensive physical and laboratory assessment to confirm and characterize the suspected hypertensive disorder.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension in a previous pregnancy, now presenting at 32 weeks gestation with new-onset edema and a blood pressure of \(155/95\) mmHg. The nurse’s priority is to identify potential complications and initiate appropriate management. A comprehensive maternal history, including previous hypertensive episodes, is crucial for risk stratification. Physical examination should focus on assessing for signs of preeclampsia, such as generalized edema, hyperreflexia, and epigastric pain. Vital signs monitoring, particularly blood pressure, is paramount. Fetal assessment, including fetal heart tones and potentially non-stress testing or biophysical profiles, is indicated due to the risk of uteroplacental insufficiency associated with hypertensive disorders. The question asks about the *most* critical initial nursing action. While all listed actions are important in obstetric care, the immediate priority in a patient exhibiting signs of potential preeclampsia is to gather more data to confirm the diagnosis and assess the severity. This involves a thorough physical assessment, including checking for reflexes and epigastric tenderness, and obtaining a urine sample for protein analysis. These steps directly contribute to diagnosing and staging the hypertensive disorder, which then guides further management. Monitoring fetal heart tones is also vital, but the maternal assessment is the immediate precursor to determining the urgency and type of fetal monitoring required. Educating the patient about warning signs is important but secondary to the immediate clinical assessment. Administering magnesium sulfate is a treatment for severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, and its administration would follow a confirmed diagnosis and risk assessment. Therefore, the most critical initial action is the comprehensive physical and laboratory assessment to confirm and characterize the suspected hypertensive disorder.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider a 32-year-old G2P1 patient at 39 weeks gestation who is undergoing induction of labor with oxytocin. During the infusion, the nurse observes a pattern of late decelerations with minimal variability on the electronic fetal monitor, occurring with contractions that are 2 minutes apart and lasting 70 seconds. What is the most critical initial nursing intervention to address this concerning fetal heart rate pattern?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a significant drop in fetal heart rate (FHR) during labor, characterized by late decelerations and minimal variability, following an oxytocin infusion. This pattern strongly suggests uteroplacental insufficiency, where the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygenation due to uterine hyperstimulation or other factors compromising placental perfusion. The immediate priority in managing such a situation, as emphasized in advanced inpatient obstetric nursing at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, is to optimize fetal oxygenation. This involves discontinuing the oxytocin infusion, as it is a direct cause of uterine hypercontractility leading to reduced placental blood flow. Simultaneously, repositioning the laboring patient to a lateral position, typically the left lateral, helps to alleviate supine hypotensive syndrome and improve venous return to the uterus, thereby enhancing placental perfusion. Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask at a high flow rate (e.g., 10 L/min) directly increases maternal oxygen saturation, which in turn improves oxygen transfer to the fetus. These interventions are foundational to stabilizing the fetal status and preventing further compromise. While other interventions like amnioinfusion might be considered in specific contexts of cord compression, they are not the immediate, universally applied first steps for suspected uteroplacental insufficiency secondary to hyperstimulation. Assessing cervical status or preparing for an expedited birth are subsequent steps that depend on the response to initial management and the overall clinical picture. Therefore, the combination of discontinuing the offending agent, improving maternal positioning, and enhancing oxygenation represents the most critical and immediate nursing actions.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a significant drop in fetal heart rate (FHR) during labor, characterized by late decelerations and minimal variability, following an oxytocin infusion. This pattern strongly suggests uteroplacental insufficiency, where the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygenation due to uterine hyperstimulation or other factors compromising placental perfusion. The immediate priority in managing such a situation, as emphasized in advanced inpatient obstetric nursing at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, is to optimize fetal oxygenation. This involves discontinuing the oxytocin infusion, as it is a direct cause of uterine hypercontractility leading to reduced placental blood flow. Simultaneously, repositioning the laboring patient to a lateral position, typically the left lateral, helps to alleviate supine hypotensive syndrome and improve venous return to the uterus, thereby enhancing placental perfusion. Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask at a high flow rate (e.g., 10 L/min) directly increases maternal oxygen saturation, which in turn improves oxygen transfer to the fetus. These interventions are foundational to stabilizing the fetal status and preventing further compromise. While other interventions like amnioinfusion might be considered in specific contexts of cord compression, they are not the immediate, universally applied first steps for suspected uteroplacental insufficiency secondary to hyperstimulation. Assessing cervical status or preparing for an expedited birth are subsequent steps that depend on the response to initial management and the overall clinical picture. Therefore, the combination of discontinuing the offending agent, improving maternal positioning, and enhancing oxygenation represents the most critical and immediate nursing actions.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A 32-year-old G2P1 patient at 36 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery unit with a sudden onset of severe occipital headache, blurred vision, and persistent epigastric discomfort. Her blood pressure is \(170/110\) mmHg, and urinalysis reveals significant proteinuria. Considering the potential for rapid deterioration, what is the most critical immediate nursing intervention to implement for this patient at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s clinical setting?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain, which are classic signs of severe preeclampsia. The nurse’s immediate priority is to prevent seizure activity, a life-threatening complication of severe preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in this condition. It acts by blocking neuromuscular transmission and reducing the central nervous system’s excitability. The standard loading dose for magnesium sulfate is typically 4-6 grams administered intravenously over 20-30 minutes. Following the loading dose, a continuous infusion is maintained to keep therapeutic serum levels. Therefore, administering the loading dose of magnesium sulfate is the most critical immediate intervention. Other interventions, such as monitoring vital signs, assessing fetal well-being, and preparing for potential delivery, are also important but secondary to preventing eclampsia. Administering oxytocin would be indicated for labor augmentation or postpartum hemorrhage, neither of which is the primary concern here. Administering a bolus of intravenous fluids without addressing the seizure risk is insufficient. Administering an opioid analgesic might provide some comfort but does not address the underlying pathophysiology of severe preeclampsia.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain, which are classic signs of severe preeclampsia. The nurse’s immediate priority is to prevent seizure activity, a life-threatening complication of severe preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in this condition. It acts by blocking neuromuscular transmission and reducing the central nervous system’s excitability. The standard loading dose for magnesium sulfate is typically 4-6 grams administered intravenously over 20-30 minutes. Following the loading dose, a continuous infusion is maintained to keep therapeutic serum levels. Therefore, administering the loading dose of magnesium sulfate is the most critical immediate intervention. Other interventions, such as monitoring vital signs, assessing fetal well-being, and preparing for potential delivery, are also important but secondary to preventing eclampsia. Administering oxytocin would be indicated for labor augmentation or postpartum hemorrhage, neither of which is the primary concern here. Administering a bolus of intravenous fluids without addressing the seizure risk is insufficient. Administering an opioid analgesic might provide some comfort but does not address the underlying pathophysiology of severe preeclampsia.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A 32-year-old G2P1 at 34 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery unit with a sudden onset of a severe, throbbing headache, blurred vision, and epigastric discomfort. Her vital signs reveal a blood pressure of \(170/110\) mmHg, pulse of \(92\) bpm, respirations of \(18\) breaths/min, and oxygen saturation of \(98\%\) on room air. A urine dipstick shows \(3+\) proteinuria. Considering the critical need for immediate intervention in Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s approach to high-risk pregnancies, what is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric pain, coupled with a significant rise in blood pressure to \(170/110\) mmHg and proteinuria \(3+\). These clinical manifestations are highly indicative of severe preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy characterized by new-onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Severe preeclampsia is defined by specific criteria, including blood pressure readings of \(160/110\) mmHg or higher, proteinuria of \(5\) grams or more in 24 hours or \(3+\) or \(4+\) on a random dipstick, and symptoms such as severe headaches, visual disturbances, epigastric or right upper quadrant pain, and thrombocytopenia. The management of severe preeclampsia necessitates immediate intervention to prevent progression to eclampsia, which involves seizures. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis and treatment in preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant, reducing neuromuscular irritability and preventing seizures. The standard loading dose is typically \(4-6\) grams administered intravenously over \(15-20\) minutes, followed by a maintenance infusion of \(1-2\) grams per hour. Antihypertensive medications, such as hydralazine or labetalol, are administered to lower the blood pressure to a safe level, usually below \(160/110\) mmHg, to prevent cerebrovascular complications. Delivery is often indicated, especially if the patient is at term or if there is evidence of fetal compromise or maternal deterioration. The question asks for the most appropriate initial nursing action. Given the patient’s presentation, the immediate priority is to stabilize her condition and prevent complications. Administering magnesium sulfate is crucial for seizure prevention. Simultaneously, initiating antihypertensive therapy is necessary to manage the elevated blood pressure. While assessing fetal well-being is important, it is not the *most* immediate life-saving intervention compared to seizure prophylaxis and blood pressure control. Encouraging ambulation would be contraindicated due to the risk of falls and potential exacerbation of symptoms. Administering a bolus of intravenous fluids without further assessment might not be the primary intervention for severe hypertension and could potentially worsen pulmonary edema if present. Therefore, the most appropriate initial nursing action is to administer magnesium sulfate and antihypertensive medication.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric pain, coupled with a significant rise in blood pressure to \(170/110\) mmHg and proteinuria \(3+\). These clinical manifestations are highly indicative of severe preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy characterized by new-onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Severe preeclampsia is defined by specific criteria, including blood pressure readings of \(160/110\) mmHg or higher, proteinuria of \(5\) grams or more in 24 hours or \(3+\) or \(4+\) on a random dipstick, and symptoms such as severe headaches, visual disturbances, epigastric or right upper quadrant pain, and thrombocytopenia. The management of severe preeclampsia necessitates immediate intervention to prevent progression to eclampsia, which involves seizures. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis and treatment in preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant, reducing neuromuscular irritability and preventing seizures. The standard loading dose is typically \(4-6\) grams administered intravenously over \(15-20\) minutes, followed by a maintenance infusion of \(1-2\) grams per hour. Antihypertensive medications, such as hydralazine or labetalol, are administered to lower the blood pressure to a safe level, usually below \(160/110\) mmHg, to prevent cerebrovascular complications. Delivery is often indicated, especially if the patient is at term or if there is evidence of fetal compromise or maternal deterioration. The question asks for the most appropriate initial nursing action. Given the patient’s presentation, the immediate priority is to stabilize her condition and prevent complications. Administering magnesium sulfate is crucial for seizure prevention. Simultaneously, initiating antihypertensive therapy is necessary to manage the elevated blood pressure. While assessing fetal well-being is important, it is not the *most* immediate life-saving intervention compared to seizure prophylaxis and blood pressure control. Encouraging ambulation would be contraindicated due to the risk of falls and potential exacerbation of symptoms. Administering a bolus of intravenous fluids without further assessment might not be the primary intervention for severe hypertension and could potentially worsen pulmonary edema if present. Therefore, the most appropriate initial nursing action is to administer magnesium sulfate and antihypertensive medication.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Consider a 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 at 32 weeks gestation presenting to the antepartum unit. Her previous pregnancy was complicated by gestational hypertension managed with bed rest. Currently, she reports significant bilateral lower extremity edema that has developed over the past week, and her vital signs reveal a blood pressure of \(155/95\) mmHg. Which of the following nursing actions is the most critical immediate priority?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension in a previous pregnancy, now presenting at 32 weeks gestation with new-onset edema and a blood pressure of \(155/95\) mmHg. These findings, particularly the elevated blood pressure and edema in the third trimester, strongly suggest the recurrence or development of a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. Given the patient’s history and current presentation, the primary nursing concern is the potential for progression to preeclampsia or eclampsia. Therefore, the most critical immediate intervention is to initiate a comprehensive assessment for signs and symptoms of preeclampsia, which includes evaluating for proteinuria, assessing reflexes, and monitoring fetal well-being. This aligns with the principles of proactive risk identification and management emphasized in Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s curriculum, focusing on early detection and intervention to prevent severe maternal and fetal outcomes. The other options, while potentially relevant in later stages or different contexts, do not represent the most immediate and critical nursing action in this specific situation. For instance, while preparing for potential delivery might be a future consideration, it is not the priority before a thorough assessment for the severity of the hypertensive condition. Similarly, focusing solely on pain management or routine prenatal education without addressing the acute hypertensive concern would be a deviation from best practice in managing high-risk pregnancies. The emphasis on a systematic, evidence-based approach to maternal assessment, particularly in the context of known risk factors, is a cornerstone of advanced obstetric nursing practice taught at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient with a history of gestational hypertension in a previous pregnancy, now presenting at 32 weeks gestation with new-onset edema and a blood pressure of \(155/95\) mmHg. These findings, particularly the elevated blood pressure and edema in the third trimester, strongly suggest the recurrence or development of a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. Given the patient’s history and current presentation, the primary nursing concern is the potential for progression to preeclampsia or eclampsia. Therefore, the most critical immediate intervention is to initiate a comprehensive assessment for signs and symptoms of preeclampsia, which includes evaluating for proteinuria, assessing reflexes, and monitoring fetal well-being. This aligns with the principles of proactive risk identification and management emphasized in Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s curriculum, focusing on early detection and intervention to prevent severe maternal and fetal outcomes. The other options, while potentially relevant in later stages or different contexts, do not represent the most immediate and critical nursing action in this specific situation. For instance, while preparing for potential delivery might be a future consideration, it is not the priority before a thorough assessment for the severity of the hypertensive condition. Similarly, focusing solely on pain management or routine prenatal education without addressing the acute hypertensive concern would be a deviation from best practice in managing high-risk pregnancies. The emphasis on a systematic, evidence-based approach to maternal assessment, particularly in the context of known risk factors, is a cornerstone of advanced obstetric nursing practice taught at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A pregnant patient at 34 weeks gestation, admitted with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, exhibits a firm, non-tender uterus on palpation. The nurse notes a decrease in fetal movement reported by the patient. Considering the potential for placental abruption and its implications for fetal well-being, what is the most critical initial nursing intervention to implement in this scenario at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University?
Correct
The scenario presented involves a patient with suspected placental abruption, a critical obstetric emergency. The nurse’s primary responsibility is to ensure maternal and fetal well-being through continuous assessment and timely intervention. In this situation, the most immediate and crucial action is to assess the fetal status. Fetal distress is a common and serious consequence of placental abruption due to compromised oxygenation. Therefore, initiating continuous electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) is paramount to detect any signs of fetal compromise, such as bradycardia, late decelerations, or decreased variability. This monitoring allows for prompt recognition of fetal distress, which may necessitate immediate delivery. While other actions like assessing maternal vital signs, preparing for potential fluid resuscitation, and notifying the physician are important, they are secondary to directly evaluating the fetal condition in the context of suspected abruption. The prompt identification of fetal distress guides the urgency of subsequent interventions, including potential operative delivery. The explanation of why continuous EFM is the priority hinges on the direct impact of placental abruption on fetal oxygenation and the nurse’s role in vigilant surveillance to prevent adverse neonatal outcomes. This aligns with Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s emphasis on proactive patient monitoring and rapid response to obstetric emergencies.
Incorrect
The scenario presented involves a patient with suspected placental abruption, a critical obstetric emergency. The nurse’s primary responsibility is to ensure maternal and fetal well-being through continuous assessment and timely intervention. In this situation, the most immediate and crucial action is to assess the fetal status. Fetal distress is a common and serious consequence of placental abruption due to compromised oxygenation. Therefore, initiating continuous electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) is paramount to detect any signs of fetal compromise, such as bradycardia, late decelerations, or decreased variability. This monitoring allows for prompt recognition of fetal distress, which may necessitate immediate delivery. While other actions like assessing maternal vital signs, preparing for potential fluid resuscitation, and notifying the physician are important, they are secondary to directly evaluating the fetal condition in the context of suspected abruption. The prompt identification of fetal distress guides the urgency of subsequent interventions, including potential operative delivery. The explanation of why continuous EFM is the priority hinges on the direct impact of placental abruption on fetal oxygenation and the nurse’s role in vigilant surveillance to prevent adverse neonatal outcomes. This aligns with Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University’s emphasis on proactive patient monitoring and rapid response to obstetric emergencies.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
A 32-year-old G2P1 at 34 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery unit with a sudden onset of a severe frontal headache, blurred vision, and epigastric pain. Her current vital signs are blood pressure 170/110 mmHg, pulse 98 bpm, respirations 20/min, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. A dipstick urinalysis reveals 3+ proteinuria. Considering the immediate need to prevent potential neurological complications, which pharmacological intervention is the most critical to initiate promptly for this patient at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University?
Correct
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric discomfort, alongside elevated blood pressure and proteinuria. These signs and symptoms are classic indicators of severe preeclampsia, a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. The management of severe preeclampsia necessitates immediate intervention to prevent progression to eclampsia and other serious complications. The primary pharmacological intervention for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia is magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant, reducing neuronal excitability and preventing seizures. While antihypertensive medications like labetalol or hydralazine are crucial for managing the elevated blood pressure, they do not directly address the risk of seizures. Oxytocin is used for labor induction or augmentation and is not indicated for seizure prevention. Furosemide is a diuretic and is contraindicated in preeclampsia as it can exacerbate hypovolemia. Therefore, the most critical immediate pharmacological intervention to prevent eclamptic seizures in this patient is magnesium sulfate administration. The rationale for this choice is rooted in the established neuroprotective effects of magnesium sulfate in the context of preeclampsia, a cornerstone of inpatient obstetric nursing care at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, emphasizing evidence-based practice and patient safety in managing high-risk pregnancies.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a patient experiencing a sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances (scotoma), and epigastric discomfort, alongside elevated blood pressure and proteinuria. These signs and symptoms are classic indicators of severe preeclampsia, a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. The management of severe preeclampsia necessitates immediate intervention to prevent progression to eclampsia and other serious complications. The primary pharmacological intervention for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia is magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant, reducing neuronal excitability and preventing seizures. While antihypertensive medications like labetalol or hydralazine are crucial for managing the elevated blood pressure, they do not directly address the risk of seizures. Oxytocin is used for labor induction or augmentation and is not indicated for seizure prevention. Furosemide is a diuretic and is contraindicated in preeclampsia as it can exacerbate hypovolemia. Therefore, the most critical immediate pharmacological intervention to prevent eclamptic seizures in this patient is magnesium sulfate administration. The rationale for this choice is rooted in the established neuroprotective effects of magnesium sulfate in the context of preeclampsia, a cornerstone of inpatient obstetric nursing care at Inpatient Obstetric Nursing (RNC-OB) University, emphasizing evidence-based practice and patient safety in managing high-risk pregnancies.